AV Verses Vindicated

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Name: Ronald Smith
Location: Bedfordshire, United Kingdom

I was converted to God while serving in the RAF, 1955. I heard the gospel of Christ preached. I believed it, repented of my sins, and trusted Christ.Then I got baptized and continue as a Bible believer

Friday, February 22, 2008

Textual Criticism and its dangers

TEXTUAL CRITICISM and its Dangers (Collated from Waymarks 1-52)

Textual Criticism is sometimes referred to as LOWER CRITICISM. See my notes on HIGHER CRITICISM at the bottom of this page.

First,a quote from David Cloud:-

"The doctrine of biblical preservation lies at the very heart of the Bible text debate. The Bible cannot be treated as any other book. It is God's supernaturally given Word. God gave it and God promised to preserve it. The underlying thesis, though, of modern textual criticism is that the Bible became corrupted through the centuries and it is the task of textual criticism to restore it in its original purity. Prominent textual critic Constantine Tischendorf looked upon his task as 'the struggle to regain the original form of the New Testament' (Metzger, The Text of the New Testament, p.126). His error. Like that of other 19th Century textual critics, was in failing to recognize God's promise of preservation. Had he believed the Bible's own testimony, he would have known by faith that the New Testament did not need to be recovered because it was not lost!

I have studied many books describing modern textual criticism. MOST OF THEM DO NOT EVEN MENTION DIVINE PRESERVATION!", David Cloud, O Timothy, Vol.16, Issue 4, 1999.

David Cloud observed that all the standard works he had read on textual criticism (he lists twelve) focus strictly upon man and his puny efforts concerning the Bible. They do not proceed upon the principle that the Bible is supernaturally given and preserved. To which this writer concurs, having read most of the same books.

We urge believers to beware of Bible teachers and expositors who make much of textual criticism. Beware of those who tell you that the critical text gives more accurate readings. Critical texts (used for all modern versions) are the invention of Romanists - the founders of Textual Criticism (Wilkinson; Our Bible Vindicated; p.103). The changes made in the text are NOT the result of superior modern scholarship.

THE PERVERSITY OF TEXTUAL CRITICISM

"Textual Criticism has long played a perverse little game with what they are only too aware is substantial pre-350AD evidence for the Traditional Text. To them, the Traditional Majority is always that of a derived text (simply because they say so!). In the early centuries it is never allowed to stand on its own. Thus, the pre-350 AD evidence which is plainly there, and witnesses strongly to the Traditional Text, is not a witness at all, but rather the sources from which the Traditional Text came (if that makes sense!).

This is how [the critics] got away with saying: 'there are no distinctive Byzantine readings before 350AD,' For by their circular reasoning, if any readings of the Byzantine majority are shown to be early by their agreement with other early sourced, then they are no longer 'distinctively' Byzantine but rather, derived from those sources.

Here then is the ploy they have used in attempting to rule out of court all early evidence for the Doctrinal Text of the Authorized Version. But, I say 'attempting', for in the face of substantial evidence they have been forced to a second line of defence: 'Well, there may be Byzantine readings before 350, but there is no Byzantine Text'! To which we would naturally reply that, given the large number of Byzantine readings, how can you have one without the other? I think you will see from the summaries in the next section, how wickedly dishonest this line of argument is. There, in many hundreds of places, we have called upon the early witnesses to vote between the Traditional Text and that of Aleph-B [the two Romish manuscripts]. The results are convincing; but it must also be said, that the other side has learned how to be very adept at 'moving the goal posts' ". Early Manuscripts and the Authorized Version; p7; J. Moorman.

Moorman points out that the critics are well aware that the manuscripts on which the AV is based have a pedigree earlier than the 4th C. AD. They pretended that a composite text had been invented in the 4th C. to account for the predominance of the AV-style Bible that was in existence at that time. This AV- style Bible, which the critics labelled 'Byzantine' was so universally recognised by those early believers that it could not have begun its existence suddenly in the 4th c. but must have been in circulation a long, long time before that.

Concerning the two Romish mss, otherwise known as the Sinaiticus and the Vaticanus, no scholar has been allowed to examine the latter. It is kept under lock and key in the Vatican. No believer has ever been allowed to study it. The Sinaiticus, which may be seen in a glass case at the British Museum, has been examined by a number of scholars and all confess to the multitudinous alterations that have been made on its pages. These represent the flow of false manuscripts upon which all the modern versions are based. (The perverse NKJV stands on its own).

The pure flow of manuscripts comprises the majority of mss. From these have come pure translations such as the AV and corresponding versions in other languages. We have to make up our minds where we stand on the issue. Do we prefer a corrupt bible to a pure Bible? Do we follow men who promote modern versions or do we listen to those to those who recognise the AV as being wholly the word of God in the English language? Does God raise up men to be teachers of his Word knowing that they will be forever finding fault with it?

If any should be deluded into thinking that textual critics are GODLY scholars, reading their works will show that they are neither godly nor scholars. I give the following piece of information, taken from the internet. I believe it displays a view which is held commonly by modern-day critics.

"…it should be noted that 2 Peter was written pseudonymously 'around the turn of the 1st Century' (New Jerome Biblical Commentary, edited by Brown, Fitzmyer, and Murphy, Englewood Cliffs, NJ, 1990, page1017) or even well into the second century".

-put on the 'net' by R N Cramer.

Not 'it is thought…', or 'one theory is…' but it WAS written pseudonomously. That is quite dogmatic. The debate that raged earlier over the authorship of 2 Peter is ended. The men in the know have made a pronouncement. Peter never wrote Peter. If there were no internal evidence as to authorship (as with Hebrews) we might just wonder who did write it, but then we read verse one, Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.

If the critic is correct, and if my belief in verbal inspiration is sound, then God inspired a lie. But critics do not believe in any kind if biblical inspiration, as can be seen in the statement made above. They believe that the New Testament was composed from stories passed on by word of mouth. They believe the theories of theology were developed after apostolic times and the bible stories were adapted to fit their theological views. So a man might write pretending he was Peter because this is what they think Peter might have wanted to write if he had been able.

If we do not have a Book that is given by inspiration of God, then all we have indeed is a book of fables and mythology. These critics give their lives to what they regard as little better than fairy stories. They are opposed to the idea of supernatural overruling in the affairs of men, particularly in relation to the formation of Scripture. They do not believe in miracles. Some of them have attacked the deity of Christ. They are not Bible believers. On that ground alone they are not to be trusted. I have read a great many of their books (I have more than 400 books dealing with Bible criticism and related subjects), and I find certain words and phrases largely missing from their works (unless they are used in a derogatory manner). Words like salvation, being born again, the work of the Holy Spirit, inspired of God; spiritual words and phrases are lacking.

Their works are not scholarly. There is as much scholarship behind textual criticism as there is behind the theory of evolution. How can true scholarship be found in that which attacks the things that God has established? Professing themselves to be wise they became fools. Josh McDowell in his book Evidence that Demands a Verdict Vol.2 shows up the shallowness of their scholarship. He wrote, "The anti-supernaturalist bases his thinking on the presupposition that God has not intervened in history. Therefore he rejects evidence indicating the supernatural no matter how convincing." P.16.

Here is another lie taken from the internet.

"The New King James Version [NKJV] will always correspond exactly with the KJV, because the NKJV is not a modern translation. It is only a modern-English rewording of the original KJV, minus the Apocrypha. (The apocrypha was included in the original KJV)

We presume R N Cramer regards himself as an authority in his subject, seeing that he puts this information on the internet. We presume he has investigated the evidence, i.e., he has actually compared the NKJV with the AV Bible. If so he has wilfully overlooked a large number of discrepancies. Some are listed below:-

Acts 4:27 Holy child changed to Holy servant

Acts 8:9 bewitched " " astonished

Rom.1:25 changed " " exchanged

Rom.4:25 delivered for " " delivered because of

2 Cor.2:17 corrupt " " peddling

These are not instances where words have been modernised. They are different words. I give these few examples to show that Cramer's statement is not true.

More serious is the fact that whole phrases are omitted. And shall make him of quick understanding Isaiah 11:33, and But he shall appear to your joy, Isaiah 66:5, are missing from the NKJV with many more well attested verses.

The Apocrypha was included in the first edition, 1611 of the AV Bible under duress. The translators did not want it. They sandwiched it between the two testaments but it is interlaced in Romish versions. The second edition omitted it and it has been out of all reputable publications of the AV Bible ever since.

UNCRITICAL NATURE OF TEXTUAL CRITICISM

The following paragraph is taken from HOMOEOPATHY What are we swallowing? I quote it here because it reveals a similar attitude that many take towards modern versions. The author, Stephen Ransom, is quoting Donald Gould, the former editor of New Scientist who warns of the dangers we invite by adopting laissez-faire reasoning in relation to homoeopathy.

"Why not make the most of what the non-conformists have to offer and [reject] uncharitable logic? There is, I suggest, a powerful reason for rejecting this superficially attractive option. Truth is a fundamental value. If we accept uncritical thinking in one area of our lives for the sake of convenience or because of the popular appeal of a seductive myth and the short-term comfort to be gained by believing in the unbelievable, or because the false answer lets us pretend we are completely coping with a painful problem we haven't truly tackled, then we are all the more likely to adopt the same strategy in other situations, from dealing with the family, to managing the national economy, and from chairing the parish council to handling the arsenals of nuclear weapons. The result is likely to be unhappy and stands a decent chance of proving a disaster. Irrational beliefs are always dangerously corrupting, even when they only relate to the cause and cure of piles."

Homeopathy has been shown to have its roots in the occult. Those following this practice will inevitably have their minds warped against spiritual values and their minds will become closed to the truth.

The same uncritical thinking has been applied to the subject of modern versions. Along with alternative medicine we have the alternative bible. The only cry that matters is that it "works". The alternative bible is said to be easier to understand, and therefore better. Sources do not matter, though they are shown to be corrupt. The modern alternative bible must be good, they say, because scholars produced it.

But scholars can be most unscholarly in their work as was Hahnemann the father of homoeopathy. He was a very clever man. He was also a freemason and dabbled in the occult. Westcott and Hort, who "fathered" the RV were also scholars who applied unscholarly principles to their work. They concocted theories concerning the origin of the Received Text that have no foundation in history and have subsequently been shown up as false. They also dabbled in the occult.

Those who insist in promoting the critical text-the Greek text that serves the modern versions-are frequently found to be very uncritical towards that same text. They close their minds to its glaring inconsistencies. One major inconsistency being the huge conflict between the two leading mss of the critical text, the Codex Vaticanus and the Codex Sinaiticus. They differ in hundreds of places.

They close their minds also to the character of the so-called scholars of the critical text. Almost to a man they have been shown up as apostates who deny the truths of the word of God.

They close their minds to the methods used by these Textual Critics. They are governed by opinions rather than facts. Their opinion is that the Bible is no different from any other book and their methods of deducing what was in "the original" can be applied to any book.

THE CRITICAL TEXT AT THE END OF THE 19TH CENTURY

Nestle's Text

Nestle produced his Greek New Testament in 1898. Westcott and Hort had already produced theirs. JND had already produced his translation from a variety of Greek texts according to his whim. Nestle's text (17th ed.1941) was used to produce the N.T. of the RSV in 1946. The 'Here's Hope Jesus Cares for you Roman Road Edition of the New Testament New American Standard, 1960' used the 23rd ed. Of Nestle's Text.

Not all modern versions follow Nestle of course. The RSV Catholic Edition, 1993, is based on the UBS 3rd ed. Greek Text, now replaced by the 4th ed. Which is identical to the Nestle-Aland 27th ed. Greek Text. Confused? Doesn't Satan intend you to be?

Now some facts about Nestle himself. Firstly, in common with all textual critics, he did not believe in verbal inspiration. He wrote of 'the possibility that what the author wrote…. Was not what he thought or intended to be read'. (Introduction to the Textual Criticism of the New Testament, p23; Williams and Norgate; 1901).

He did not think that God wanted to preserve His word beyond Apostolic days, for, writing of the disappearance of the original manuscripts he wrote, 'Their disappearance is readily understood when we consider that the greater portion of the New Testament, viz. the epistles, are occasional writings never intended for publication, while others were meant to have only a limited circulation'. Ibid. p156)

So the book we call the Holy Bible is not really God's book anyway. Nestle thought that God never intended the Church to have any settled, enduring Book. This gives men licence to mess around with it just as they fancy. Certain men crept in unawares. You recognise them today when they pronounce from the platform, 'The Nestle Text renders it.…'

Nestle taught that the NT is to be regarded as no different to any other work of literature. He wrote, 'the task and the method [of textual criticism] are the same for all literary productions.' Thus any element of faith is rejected together with divine intervention in the giving of Scripture and its preservation. He goes on, 'the task is to exhibit what the original writer intended to communicate to his readers.' (Ibid.p156). Note "intended"! The concern is not with what was actually written but what the critics think the writer intended to write if only he could have expressed himself satisfactorily.

That is the history of textual criticism. Most alterations to Scripture were made in the 2nd and 3rd centuries AD by heretics such as Origen who thought they knew better than the writers of Holy Scripture what should actually by on the sacred page. Modern critics now spend their time shuffling through a few ancient manuscripts looking for changes that will substantiate their warped views of /Scripture. We point out that the vast majority of manuscripts support the text of the AV.

That modern critics believe that the NT writers needed to be corrected from time to time is seen when G D Fee wrote, 'For the early Christians, it was precisely because the meaning was so important that they exercised a certain amount of freedom in making the meaning clear.' (Studies in the Theory and Method of NT Textual Criticism; 1993;p195). What a wicked smear! We have an alleged example in Mk.1:1. The critics tell us that Mark actually wrote 'It is written in the prophet.' And then he quotes Malachi and Isaiah, not appreciating that they were two separate prophets. Early Christians realising Mark's blunder altered the reading to the form found in the AV, as it is written in the prophets. If that should be true then obviously neither form can be God-breathed Scripture for God cannot inspire error and God does not inspire alterations to His word.

THE CRITICAL TEXT AT THE END OF THE 20TH CENTURY

There are essentially two Greek texts upon which th NT mat be translated. One is the Received Text from which the AV has been translated and the other is what is currently described as UBSGNT4. This is the United Bible Societies Greek New Testament Fourth Edition. It is regarded as identical to the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament 27th Editing and has come to be adopted as the Standard Greek New Testament upon which all modern translations are based.

It is called a Critical Text because it is based on the works of modern textual critics who regard the Received Text as uncritical, i.e. there was little discernment as to the 'best' mss. to be used. Many of our brethren, when referring to the Critical Text, do not know what that text is. Basically it is the Westcott/Hort text from which sprang the RV, and is which has evolved into the UBSGNT4 which its compilers confess to be virtually identical to the W/H text.

The UBS was formed in 1955 under the management of NIDA, a notorious apostate and enemy of the word of God. The first UBSGNT was produced in 1966. The second edition came out in 1968 with Carlo Martini of the Pontifical Biblical Institute on the editorial committee. Martini is tipped to be the next pope. From this time all GNTs, and therefore all new translations, have been dominated by Rome. It is the purpose of Rome to destroy faith in the Holy Bible. Those who use the modern versions and can see nothing wrong in them need to look to their own salvation.

The UBSGNT uses a rating system in its apparatus to indicate the degree of presumed reliability of its text and variant readings. They are:-

{A}The text is certain.

{B}The text is almost certain.

{C}The editors had difficulty in deciding which variant to place in the text.

{D}The editors had great difficulty arriving at a decision.

What this means is that every time there is a different reading available, it is either placed in the text if regarded as [A], or placed as a footnote if regarded as {B}, {C} or {D}.

What is not so clear is that readings peculiar to the Received Text are discounted entirely. That is, verses found only in the AV have been abandoned as not worth considering at all. We are not surprised to learn that the {A} variants are predominantly from the Vaticanus/Sinaiticus mss.

The text itself is virtually the same as W&H's 19th C. text. It is just that there are now far more {A}'s given in the apparatus. This means that although very little alleged improvement in the text has actually been made by the critics in the last 100 yeas, they are now fully persuaded that they have been right all along.

Kent Clarke, in his book Textual Optimism; A Critique of the United Bible Societies' Greek New Testament; Sheffield Academic Press, 1997. realizes that these critics have gone too far. If they become too optimistic about the text, they put themselves out of work; further revisions become unnecessary. He urges that there must still be doubts about the Greek NT even after 100 plus years. But we say that believers have had no doubts for the last 2000 years.

These are more of Clarke's observations:-

The NT text needs to be updated regularly, 'Progress in the study of the New Testament textual criticism inevitably makes it necessary to bring printed editions of the NT up to date at regular intervals. It is therefore not surprising that Nestle's Text has undergone twentysix revisions since 1898.' the idea of a settled word of God is not acceptable to critics. They certainly do believe in an evolving bible.

IS THE KING JAMES VERSION PERFECT?

When a salesman disparages his wares, we think his business must be in trouble, or perhaps he is going to change his line. M Penfold of Penfold Book and Bible House finds fault with the Holy Bible in a leaflet titled Is the King James Version Perfect? Is his attack on the Authorized Version because he now sells the perverted NKJV, we ask? What else drives a man to attack the word of God? Mr Penfold has for many years sold only the Authorized Version of the Holy Bible, together with a range of books defending the AV Bible. He published a leaflet in 1994 with the title The N.I.V. and G.N.B. Shocking – Exposé- in which he used the AV Bible as a standard by which to judge the NIV and the GNB. Furthermore, in this leaflet he gave "Seven Reasons for Keeping to the Authorized Version".

The first reason is "Its New Testament is based on what is now called the Textus Receptus (sometimes called Majority, Traditional or Byzantine Text). This text is backed up by 95% of all Greek manuscripts. It is accurate and has been faithfully preserved." Mr Penfold now denies this but hasn’t given any evidence why he now thinks this to be false.

The second reason "it is a formal equivalence translation, as near word for word as possible". So we plainly shall find nothing better.

Thirdly, "It was translated by a committee of spiritual scholars of unparalleled learning". That means even yet unsurpassed, including the NKJV committee.

Fourthly, "It emphasises the deity and Lordship of Christ.

Fifthly, "It is free from doctrinal error".

Sixthly, "It has no verses or passages missing". So what is this nonsense of looking for other manuscripts, if we have it all and it is accurate? We note that the NKJV subtly questions the authenticity of forty-five verses in its margin.

Seventhly, "It is easier to memorise, and easier to read than the NIV".

In his current attack on the AV he points out what he thinks are mistakes in the Bible. He refers to the Bible as the "KJV". He mocks those who believe this Bible to be wholly the word of God, describing them as "KJV onlyites".

If Mr Penfold insists that he is not referring to the Holy Bible but to a version of it, he falls foul of the trade descriptions act, for he has sold AV Bibles with the words "Holy Bible" stamped upon the cover.

The words "Holy Bible" imply that within the covers of the book is to be found the whole word of God without error, without loss and without addition. This is the view held for hundreds of years, now under attack in these closing days of God’s grace.

In order to attack the Holy Bible, Penfold describes an American group that he has stumbled upon, "mainly independent Baptists from the USA, [who] have come to hold an erroneous view that the KJV is not just a very good, or even the best translation in the English language, but that it is absolutely perfect and faultless." But we suggest that the true Bible believer will indeed have such an implicit trust in his Bible, and this is the historic position.

Penfold alleges that one of the leaders of this "KJV Only" movement is Dr Peter Ruckman of Florida, This thrice married man, who holds to a number of strange doctrines does not lead any but his own little cult as Mr Penfold knows very well, having spent some time in his home in Florida. He is not representative of the vast majority of Bible believers. Am I to reject my Bible because M Penfold has found a few extremists who make false claims for it? Of course not, we are told, "a simpler solution would be to update words whose meanings have changed." An attempt to do this was made with the NKJV, with disastrous results. Then there will have to be another update next year as language changes even more. The salesman finds he cannot make a living from one unchangeable Book!

M Penfold responded to my request for a copy of his leaflet with these words,

….I have only had two written responses to my leaflet. One from D- and one from A- , both fanatical Ruckmanites. Speaks for itself. Other than that a good number of more balanced folks have spoken of great help received.

….I can just see the next edition of Waymarks with the main headline "Penfold apostatises"- however, I have long believed that KJV perfectionism is an error and a divisive one at that, and having seen some of the damage it has done I decided to balance the ship as far as our own booklist is concerned and publicly make it clear that while we stand for the TR and the KJV we do not accept the perfection theory.

Regards,

Michael

Michael knows that Waymarks does not carry main headlines. He says that he has "long believed that KJV perfectionism is an error" but we can remember NOT SO LONG AGO that Michael tenaciously defended the position he now rejects. As far as "Penfold apostasies" is concerned, we need only to add, "you said it!". But we do not believe every person who questions the integrity of the AV Bible is an apostate. Some are believers who have been misled and misinformed by other brethren. Some are young believers, confused by the barrage of modern versionism put up by Satan.

Michael doesn’t say what is this damage done by having a total trust in one Bible mightily blessed of God over hundreds of years. He doesn’t explain why believing in a perfect Bible is divisive. But we have seen the damage done to the faith of young believers who are told by leading brethren "the AV is wrong here". And there is nothing so divisive as the proliferation of modern versions. He assumes that only unbalanced folk will write for his leaflet.

We wonder what kind of people are they who are helped by being told the Authorized Version Bible is defective in thousands of places. Are they pleased to learn that the Bible mightily blessed and used of God for 400 years is at last proved to be faulty? How can a thoroughly negative piece of writing help anybody apart from the writer, who charges folk 30p a time to read it?

Here is another strange thing ¾ many of the supposed errors discovered by Mr Penfold are well answered in some of the books he sells! Is he not familiar with his own goods? Does he not believe in them? Two I have in front of me are Unholy Hands on God’s Holy Book by David Cloud, and The King James Version Defended by E F Hills. These are highly recommended to the believer who wants the answers to the malicious smears being made against the Holy Bible Authorized Version.

Now here are some of errors that Michael lists.

"The 1850 KJV differs from the 1611 edition in 75,000 details." He doesn’t tell his readers that very nearly ALL of those 75,000 involve changed spelling; v to u, so "vntill" becomes "until" and sometimes u is changed to v, as "euill" becomes "evil". f becomes s, and I becomes j.

Dr Waite points out that only 421 changes can be detected by the ear. Penfold draws attention to this as a Big Thing. He forgets to tell his readers that there are 791328 words in the AV Bible. That’s about 0.05% of the words changed sufficiently for the ear to detect. It doesn’t imply that the meanings of these words has changed. Out of those 421, only 136 are actually different words. An example is "…he came and worshipped him" (Mark 5:6) becomes he ran and worshipped him.

Of course there were printer’s errors made in 1611AD. What a miracle that there were not more with printing then in its infancy. But these were discovered and corrected in later editions. One has to be very devious to suggest that printer’s errors are mistakes in the word of God.

M Penfold has built up his straw man, calling him a "KJVOnly advocate" and advises his readers to ask what he thinks is an unanswerable question, "where was God’s word in 1610?". M Penfold then puts his answers into the mouth of Mr Strawman but fails to give the answer any Bible believer will give. Where was the word of God in 1610AD? It was in the hands of believers on the Continent. The Waldensians for 1000years had their Old Latin translation based on what became known as the Received Text. That is, their Bible was the same as mine, the word of God.

Thus it is a misnomer to call English speaking Bible believers "KJV Only advocates.". God has not promised to maintain His word in every known language across the world at all times. But there never has been a time when the word of God was not available in its entirety to believers somewhere in the world. At present the Authorized Bible is the only faithful translation in the English tongue (and in this, I do believe, it is superior to any Bible in any other language.) I find no substitute for my AV Bible so if M Penfold wants to mock me for it let him continue.

M Penfold speaks of imperfections in the Holy Bible. (Sorry Michael, MY Bible IS the Holy Bible and ONE imperfection¾ one fly in the ointment¾ would cause it to stink, to become unholy.). These "imperfections" were answered 100 years ago. The imperfections are in the darkened minds of those who seek to savage the word of God.

This offensive leaflet closes with a quote from J Burgon. It is quoted out of context making us think that M Penfold had not troubled himself to read J Burgon beforehand.

He quotes

"…that by perpetual miracle, sacred manuscripts would be protected all down the ages against depraving influences of whatever sort, was not to have been expected; certainly was never promised" (The Revision Revised, p.335)

The quote presented in this manner is dishonest and deceitful for Burgon in the very next sentence wrote,

"But the Church, in her collective capacity, hath nevertheless as a matter of fact been perpetually purging herself of those shamefully depraved copies which once everywhere abounded within her pale.

"What, in the meantime, is to be thought of those blind guides those deluded ones who would now, if they could, persuade us to go back to those same codices of which the Church hath already purged herself? To go back in quest of those very Readings which, 15 or 1600 years ago, the Church in all lands is found to have rejected with loathing.

The NKJV (sold by Penfold Book and Bible House, but not listed in his catalogue) is certainly a step back into those depraving influences, which were recognised for what they are from the beginning.

Another argument used in the Penfold leaflet is that some passages are "almost impossible to understand without a study aid of some kind. What use is a ‘perfect’ English translation if you can’t understand parts of it? Take for instance II Cor 6v11-13. What does this mean…?"

Most of us have a very good study aid; we were taught to read English when we were children. When a man claims to have been saved a quarter of a century or more and then asks, what does this mean? We ask, has he only just started reading his Bible. Did he not discover the answer years ago? Did he not have an elder or a father to explain it to him?

In any case, the AV is written in plainer and simpler English than any modern version. Peter wrote concerning Paul’s epistles, in which are some things hard to be understood (2 Peter 3: 16). It may be that this is the crux of the matter. To understand the English Bible one must be saved and one must apply spiritual discernment and one must wait on the Lord in prayer and meditation. The Holy Spirit teaches us all things.

Penfold closes with a false surmise;

If God, before the invention of printing, kept His promise of preservation by letting the word of God exist as a complete entity across thousands of manuscripts, but not in any single perfect manuscript, there is no need, nor is it possible, to confer infallibility on one English translation today.

So is God then the Author of confusion? All should know that by the middle of the 2nd Century the New Testament writings were collected in one Book. It was available in the Syriac tongue, and in Old Latin. These were in agreement with each other and have been referred to by some as the Byzantine Text.

J Moorman, in his book For Ever Settled, says

The King James Bible had hardly begun its career before the enemies commenced to fall upon it. Though it has been with us for [more than] three hundred years in splendid leadership —a striking phenomenon—nevertheless, as the years increase, the attacks became more furious. If the Book were a dangerous document, a source of corrupting influence and a nuisance, we would wonder why it has been necessary to assail it since it would naturally die of its own weakness. But when it is a Divine blessing of great worth, a faultless power of transforming influence, who can they be who are so stirred up as to deliver against it one assault after another. (p. 191)

Despite all the efforts of the critics, Clarke bemoans the fact that 'All the [75] critical editions since 1881 are basically the same as Westcott & Hort's text....All are founded on the same Egyptian recension....' p53. '... We have made little progress in textual theory since W&H and whatever significant second act is to follow....' p121.

Note that ! They are waiting for the great WHATEVER. One of them will perform a conjuring trick and out of his hat will come the great and final Greek Text. The critics will all receive their 'golden handshakes' and we can all go home to bed.

But they know they are beaten. They know there is no golden text waiting to be discovered. The Sinaitic dustbins (from whence came the Sinaitic mss of the RV) have been well scoured. There is nothing for them but more miserable W&H. the1000's of mss discovered since W&H only serve to vindicate the Received Text. This is acknowledged by Clarke, '....The new papyri discoveries have apparently shown that an early form of Syrian/Byzantine readings...existed prior to the fourth century, and perhaps as early as the second century'. So these are just brushed aside as coming from one depraved source. Well, we know that is the situation with the critical text. It comes from a polluted source. A text that describes Joseph as the father of the Lord Jesus hardly came from a pure source.

THE CORRECTED TEXT

"If we must receive the Corrected Text of M. Griesbach, [regarded by many as the father of modern textual criticism], to the exclusion of the Greek Vulgate [=Received Text], we must accept it as a demonstrative proof of the general corruption of the sacred text, and of the faithlessness of the traditional testimony on which it is supported, for a period extending from the apostolical to the present age. One of the first positions laid down in his critical theory, and implied in the conclusions which it involves, is, that the two principal Classes of Text out of which his edition is formed, have been interpolated in every part of them for that period.

One of the last consequences which that theory tends to establish, is, that the only remaining Class of Text existing in the Greek Vulgate, and against which the immense number of 150,000 various readings has been collected, has existed in its present state of corruption nearly 1400 years. If these conclusions are unavoidable, there seems to be no reservation by which the doctrinal integrity of the sacred Scriptures can be saved. If the apostolical age has thus erred in its testimony, and its evidence has been further corrupted in the primitive age; whatever be the text, which is gathered out of the immense number of various readings, which make up the sum of their testimony, it may be as well any other text, as that which the inspired writers originally delivered to the church."

-Fred Nolan; An Inquiry into the Integrity of the Greek Vulgate; 1815.

What Nolan pointed out, well nigh 200 years ago, and 66 years before the RV was published, was that if the sacred text has been corrupted from the beginning then we have no hope of certainty as to the word of God. Further; statements concerning the faithfulness of God in preserving the Scriptures are false.

The work of the Textual Critic is to iron out all that he sees as corruptions in the Scriptures. This is the very foundation stone of Textual Criticism. It is the heart of modern versionism. Griesbach published his Greek NT in Germany in 1775, in an attempt to destroy the Received Text. He wasn't the first, to endeavour to overthrow the true word of God. Men like Origen and Eusebius had sought to do that at a very early stage. The Master Overthrower and Revisionist is Satan of course.

Ours is no blind adherence to an antiquated and forlorn book. The word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword. Heb.4:12. Our Book is living. It has an inherent vitality, and if it can age and fall into decay, then so can God. It is His word. More than that, it is Christ. His name is called The Word of God. Rev.19:13. Attacks on the Scriptures are attacks on Christ. If the written Word can be proved defective then Christ is proved to be defective.

THE STATUS QUAESTIONIS

In 1995 a book was published titled 'The Text of the New Testament in Contemporary Research; Essays on the Status Quaestionis.' Edited by B D Ehrman and M W Holmes.

The title cries unbelief. The use of Latin in the title is to give the impression that the work is scholarly. The text of the New Testament requires no contemporary research. It did in the 16th century and Erasmus, Stephens and the Elzevir brothers applied themselves to this, producing what became known as the Received Text. This text was accepted as the true text by believers in the 16th century and since. A fundamental reason for its acceptance was its agreement with early translations, documents, and quotations from the Fathers. This agreement is evidence that it is the text 'handed down' by the early church. The majority of all the Greek mss bear testimony to this text.

The text requires no contemporary research because it is a settled text. The critics hold to an evolving text, but they are running out of steam. Hence on the cover of this book we read, "Repeatedly one hears that rigor mortis has set in for textual criticism of the New Testament. But the present publication suggests that in place of lamentation one ought to celebrate the pains a number of scholars have taken to ensure revival of the patient. Much of the credit for resurgence of interest in the discipline goes to Dr. Bruce Metzger, to whom this volume is dedicated." -F W Danker; Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago.

Metzger is a notorious heretic. He tells us that Moses did not write the Pentateuch, and that the miracles performed by the Lord did not happen. He denies any supernatural involvement in the giving of Scripture. Be assured that any further research from these critics will result in deeper apostasy. Lutheran theology has very little to do with sound Biblical doctrine.

The title of the book is false because it assumes an incompetent God Who took the trouble to give His word by inspiration to selected men but found Himself unable to preserve it. The critics tell us that the text could not be preserved intact word for word from the beginning because it was in the hands of weak and failing men who were liable to make mistakes in the transmission of the text. We answer that those men who first set down the word of God in writing were also weak and failing, but not in the matter of writing Scripture. They were then under the direct supervision of the Spirit of God. Since then the Scriptures have remained IN THE HAND OF GOD. He has chosen to use puny believers in the transmission of His word and if God gave His word by inspiration in the first place, it seems incredible to me, that He would then abandon His word to the vicissitudes of fate.

The first essay in the book deals with the papyrus manuscripts. These are of course the oldest documents of the NT. The critics hold that 'oldest is best' but this is a false surmise, because we must ask, why have certain mss survived and not others? First we note that no 1st century ms has survived (i.e. no original ms) The papyri discovered range from the 2nd to the 8th centuries. After that papyrus was no longer used.

All 96 extant papyrus mss were found in Egypt and they represent less that 2% of all mss. The critics have cleverly divided them into three text types known as Alexandrian, Western, and Caesarian. depending on the various readings peculiar to each. They explain the presence of Western and Caesarian type mss in Egypt by suggesting that travelers must have brought them in. This is a mere hypothesis for which there is no evidence.

There is a fourth text type that gets a brief mention since none of this type has been preserved among these earlier relics in the sands of Egypt. This type they designate Majority or Byzantine. This type, beloved, is our received text. The critics argue that because nothing of it has been found with the other ancient papyri in Egypt then this text-type did not exist anywhere in the first and second centuries and was in fact invented much later.

The believer sees no problem in the absence of Byzantine type papyri in Egypt. These mss became worn with usage and once recopied the original would be destroyed. Those mss found discarded in the sand may be frail with age but were not worn with usage. Also we cannot imagine why Bible believers in the first two centuries would want to go to Egypt, the home even then of apostates such as Origen. And if they did, why would they throw their Bibles away-Bibles containing the full canon of Scripture were available from the 2nd century-or otherwise dispose of them when they got there. If they went at all, they would have taken their Byzantine Bibles back home with them. The area of testimony in the first two centuries centred around Byzantium.

E J Epp confesses in this book that of the 47 earliest papyri, dating up to the turn of the third/fourth centuries, 'it remains doubtful, therefore, whether it can be said that in these forty-seven mss the NT text can be studied in the original'. His reason for saying so is the number of different readings that occur even among these few mss. The critics do not even know which was copied from which. We are assured however that these Egyptian copyists were not believers (i.e. were not saved men). Believers were faithful in their copying. In any case we believe that the original mss-the autographs-ended their days close to where they were originated, on the northern side of the Mediterranean Sea.

A note about the copying of Scripture.

A bible critic once offered a challenge. He said that it is impossible to copy any piece of prose without making a lot of mistakes. He argued that this explained the multiplicity of differences in the various manuscripts.

His statement is misleading, first because there is a remarkable unity in the majority of manuscripts. Only a few manuscripts display a depravity in the text. They are well known and are the ones 'preferred' by the critics. Two in particular being the Vaticanus and the Sinaiticus. They are preferred because in many instances they attack the deity of Christ and the critics DO NOT BELIEVE IN the deity of Christ.

Second, it is not impossible to copy without making many mistakes. Our critic suggested one might try copying the Gospel of John. I have copied longhand the first ten chapters. I made five errors in all; I spotted them myself; I changed them, and none affected the meaning of the sentence. For example I wrote Nathaniel instead of Nathanael; can instead of Can etc.

Believers were very meticulous in their copying of the first manuscripts because they knew they were handling Spirit given Scripture, the word of Life. Monks and professional scribes began to make copies but they did not think accuracy was too important. Later other illiterate monks made copies and decorated them with pretty pictures to make money. They were indifferent to the text itself. Today these ancient mss are worth great sums of money, but did you ever hear any person taking interest in what was actually written on them?

HIGHER CRITICISM

Whilst we accept a spiritual investigation into the background details of the Bible, as to authorship of the various books etc., what is known as HIGHER CRITICISM is a perversion of satanic origin, being the work of unconverted rationalists.

It involves a rank denial of plain statements of Scripture, often in relation to the miracles, and questions many of the historic facts of the Bible without offering conclusive evidence to the contrary.

A genuine believer does not, indeed cannot, follow this path. One of the first evidences of new life in a soul is the acknowledgement that the Bible is what it claims to be, the word of God, given by inspiration and without error. That this is questioned by many of our own brethren only highlights the apostasy of our day. If we have not such a book then we have an incompetent God who cannot keep His promises. But the indwelling Holy Spirit teaches the soul from the moment of conversion the truth of God's word.

The person who holds a conviction that there is error in the Bible will need to look to his own soul as to whether he is in possession of eternal life.

Doubts and anxieties may be caused by heeding the teachings of the Higher Critics, but a believer waiting on the Lord will gain assurance that these men are deceivers. All their lies were answered more than a hundred years ago.

The psalmist wrote I will delight myself in thy statutes: I will not forget thy word. Ps. 119:16. He would not have delighted himself in flawed statutes. Any who even think that there are faults in the Word will soon forget the Word. They will have little time for it. They wil not be men and women of the Book.

An example of the unbelief of the Higher Critics is found in their questioning of the chronology of Luke 3:1,2.

So, we quote Prof. Findlay: "Luke's attempt to relate the beginning of the ministry of Jesus to the life of the larger world creates two or three difficulties. Does 'the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar' date from AD 11, when Tiberius was made Augustus's colleague, or AD 14, when Augustus died? Probably the former."

Note that this professor could offer no more than "probably". He rated his own intellectual powers as of higher value than the recorded word of God. He gave no evidence for his opinion.

We turn to another rationalist on the same passage. I quote Prof. Plummer: "It is impossible to determine this with certainty. Good authorities (Zumpt, Weiseler, Weiss) plead for [AD 11] which makes the gospel chronology run more smoothly."

They "plead"! No evidence comes from these German rationalists. Believers are not impressed by this nonsense. they know that the Scriptures were given by inspiration of God, so that although Luke (and other writers of Scripture) were not omniscient, they were nevertheless divinely guided to record only truth by the omniscient all-seeing Spirit of God.

All the arguments of these scoffers follow the same pattern and can be dealt with in the same way.

As far as the first two chapters of Luke's Gospel are concerned, they have often been under attack, no doubt because of their content. It is here that we read in detail concerning the incarnation of Christ by means of a virgin's womb.

Some describe the opening words of Luke as of "classical" style, (Plummer), and others suggest that these verse are "poetical". There is an inference there that another writer, other than Luke, was involved. If that were so then 1:3 reveals that writer to be a liar and makes a liar of Luke who claims authorship for the whole. But there are no valid grounds for questioning the authorship of any part of Luke's Gospel, or for any part of Scripture for that matter.

It has been alleged that Luke's reference to Theudas (Acts 5:36) is an error. the first answer to that is that Luke simply recorded the words of Gamaliel, who referred to Theudas by mistake. so the error would have been Gamaliel's and not Luke's. But the conflict, we are told, lies between Gamaliel's account and that of the historian Josephus. Josephus tells us that it was a Judas and not Theudas, who led the revolt referred to. However, if we may quote one more critic, "it is quite possible that Josephus made an historical mistake as that St Luke did." - Acts of the Apostles; M F Sadler.

Impossible for the Spirit-led Luke to err, we say, but possible for Gamaliel and obviously so for Josephus. Again we say, believers are not bamboozled by the utterances of unconverted critics, clerics, and commentators.

Let God be true, but every man a liar. Rom.3:3

CHURCHES CORRUPTED BY HIGHER CRITICISM

The following is taken from an article first published about 100 years ago. The article is "Experiences of Assembly Life -Bypaths and their Dangers"; Present Truth Vol.10, No.113. 1999. I find myself in full accord with the doctrinal and practical teachings expressed. There was one paragraph, however, that stood out,

-"For as 'the churches' become more and more corrupted by the 'Higher Criticism' and avowed sceptical opinions of some of their Professors and Ministers, they must give up most of the vital truths of the gospel."

I was thankful when I was received into the fellowship of a little gathering of the Lord's People more than forty years ago that I found myself in a company free from the taints of modernism. I have never wanted to be anywhere else.

As the years passed by I discovered with deep regret that the errors of Bible Criticism were as rampant among us they are throughout Christendom. For while most of our brethren disclaim Higher Criticism they seem unaware that the "Higher" sprang out of the "Lower" Criticism which they have embraced with so much enthusiasm.

"Criticism is divided into Lower, or textual, and Higher. Lower or textual criticism confines itself to testing the various editions of a work by examining the style, words, phrases and figures used in the text, until by this process it is able to settle the correct text; for until we have an accurate copy of the original there will always be some question as to the safety of the conclusions drawn.

The 'Lower Criticism' having done its work in settling the text, in steps the 'Higher Criticism'….to ascertain and to settle….legitimate questions….is the person whose name is attached to the book really the Author?"

Chapters on the Higher Criticism; F J Kirby.

Our brethren from the start have swallowed the Lower Criticism lie. Darby, Kelly, Vine, Newberry were all influenced by rationalistic scholars. So today the text is questioned from all our platforms. "The AV is wrong here", "a better rendering would be", "the critical text puts it", "the original says", "this is an interpolation", that is a gloss", and so on. The result is faith in the inspired word of God is disturbed and vital truths of the Gospel are certainly being neglected. Preaching designed to bring a soul under deep conviction of sin is rarely heard among us. Repentance is no longer called for and a conversion experience is missing from the lives of not a few in fellowship among us.

Higher Criticism cannot be divorced from the Lower. A proof of this may be seen in the change made to Deut.1:1.No longer is it this side Jordan, which happened to be the wilderness side, where Moses both spoke and wrote Deuteronomy and where he died. The conclusion is that someone else wrote the book and referred back to where Moses was on "the other side". Thus is the authorship of the book questioned in the RV,NIV and many other modern versions. The fact that so many of our brethren were misled by the RV (and some still are) shows that our early brethren were not free from the contamination of Higher Criticism.

A CRITICAL LEXICON by E W BULLINGER

This work was first published in 1908 and is now reprinted. A reviewer tells us that this work "offers the English reader considerable help in determining 'at one view, the Greek word with its literal and derivative meanings... for every word in the English NT'. The preface claims 'that many useless arguments would be saved if it were known precisely what was the exact force of the words' in a particular passage of Scripture!'"

We point out repeatedly that the Englishman does not need to know any Greek word. I also point out that I am not opposed to scholarship and learning. I am a schoolteacher. But we do have a settled standard definitive Bible. It is not evolving as is the so-called Greek text. The yearning to get back to the Greek is the product of rationalism. It is a rationalism that is not satisfied with what our God has given us in the Authorized Bible. I find such lexicons as Bullinger's fascinating, but not spiritually beneficial.

But note what the reviewer tells us. "Many useless arguments would be saved if it were known precisely what was the exact force...". The Greek lexicon (Bullinger's or Vine's, or maybe even Thayer's, becomes the final court of appeal. It is no longer "What sayeth the Scripture?" but what sayeth Bullinger (or Vine)? If there is "a useless argument" over the word of God, it can now be settled at the shrine of Bullinger. The Scripture warns us to shun profane and vain babblings: for they will increase unto more ungodliness. 2 Tim.2:16. When a man gets up in the Bible Reading to tell us what the Greek word is (because he has had time to look it up in Vine/Bullinger) it is mere profane and vain babbling.

Now a little about Dr. Bullinger. He was an Anglican cleric. (Yes, I know one or two of them have been believers.) This one had some very weird ultra-dispensationalist doctrines which gave rise to the cult of Bullingerism.

This is what he taught: "The four gospels are Jewish and do not apply today at all. Acts covers a 'transition period' and only when we come to the prison epistles is the 'Dispensation of mystery' revealed. Thus the church which is Christ's Body began, so it is claimed, not on the day of Pentecost, but some thirty years later. As for the ordinances, Baptism and Breaking of Bread, they belonged to the Acts period and have no place now, this being a spiritual dispensation."

The above is the extreme opposite to a-millenialism and is quoted from W Bunting's article on a-millenialism published in Assembly Testimony March/April 1962.

Can a man holding to doctrinal error be a reliable source for the understanding of the word of God? Beware the idol of apostate scholarship set high upon its gilded pedestal. Remember too when you look up a Greek word you are not reading what the word means, you are learning what the scholar tells you it means.

Bullingerism continues today in the "Berean Trust". One of their chief men was Charles Welch . Their HQ is Wilson St. Chapel, London, which is also referred to as "The Chapel of the Opened Book".

REDACTION CRITICISM (aka Composition Criticism)

Redaction Criticism teaches that the gospels were not written by direct inspiration of God but by copying material from secondary sources (see Waymarks No.14 Misleading Views.

David Cloud in his monthly magazine, 0 Timothy, Vol.15, issue 7, 1998 gives six reasons why redaction criticism is false. I give just his headings below.

‘1 If the redaction theories of the Gospels are true, we do not have an

infallible account of Christ’s life.

2 If the redaction theories of the Gospels are true, we will never know

for sure what part of the Gospels are fallible words of men and what

part is the infallible Word of God.

3 Those who accept redaction theories are not edifying the flock; they

are entertaining the scholars.

4 The alleged contradictions and problems within the Gospels which

are raised by those who promote redaction criticism have been answ

-ered satisfactorily without resorting to redactionism.

5 One of the errors which leads to theories such as redactionism is to

focus on the method of inspiration rather than on the product.

6 1 believe redaction criticism is of the devil.’

Redactionists may be recognized by their use of words such as ‘the Synoptic problem’, ‘the composition of the Scriptures’, ‘the lost manuscript’, ‘Mark wrote his gospel first’, ‘the historical Jesus’.

Redactionists hold blasphemous views of Christ. Norman Perrin wrote, ‘the early church... .saw no reason to distinguish between words originally spoken by the historical Jesus bar Joseph from Nazareth and words ascribed to him in the tradition of the church.’ What is Redaction Criticism?; SPCK 1970. Perrin’s blasphemy, and he is a spokesman for all redactionists, is in line with the murmuring Jews of John 6:41, when they said, is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph whose father and mother we know?

We know too that the gospel accounts were given by inspiration of God so that we have faithful and true records of the life and ministry of the Lord Jesus Christ. it is therefore mere idle speculation as to which was written first.

The following is quoted from Believer’s Magazine ,Oct. 98, p.302:- In the previous article on Inspiration we found that there was a human element in the composition of scripture; divinely prepared men were used by the Holy Spirit to write in prose or poetry containing figurative and even symbolic language at times.’

There we have it again — ‘the composition of scripture’. In other words Scripture writers were not led to set down the inspired word. they were instead ‘used’ in its composition This is the Higher (Redaction) Criticism that we thought was dead fifty years ago

CRITICS ON THE RUN

D Wallace, a textual critic, wrote in The Text of the New Testament in Contemporary Research; Eerdmans; 1995,

For the first two-thirds of the twentieth century, NT critics could speak with one accord: the TR had finally been laid to rest. ….

The situation today is disturbingly different. Gone is the era when KJV/TR advocates could be found only in the backwaters of anti-intellectual American fundamentalism. A small but growing number of students of the NT in North America and to a lesser degree, in Europe…. Are embracing a view left for dead over a century ago ¾ that the original text is to be found in a majority of MSS. …proponents of a minority view are trying to reopen an issue once thought to be settled.

We are reminded in this of how the Jews from Antioch and Iconium persuaded the people to stone Paul and they drew him out of the city, supposing he had been dead. Acts 14:19. How the Jews must have rejoiced. No longer would they have to suffer this little Jew with his gospel which cut right through man’s pride. Howbeit, as the disciples stood round about him, he rose up and came into the city. v.20. O what an awful shock for those God-hating Jews! They thought they had put an end to the apostle. It is Paul who reminds us, it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise. 1 Cor.1:19.

What a shock too for those critics who had laboured for so long to destroy the AV Bible only to discover that it is still very much alive, and hadn’t died at all. It must be understood that this is the purpose behind textual criticism, to destroy the written testimony of God. The struggle to arrive at the original text is merely a subterfuge. The critics confess that this goal will never be reached. However, the "original text" is ever with us, and we have it in the AV Bible.

We are seeing an awakening to the true Scripture and we are thankful for it. There are now many good books available defending the AV and the TR. The books by E Hills and Otis Fuller should be on every Bible believer’s bookshelf together with Burgon’s classic Revision Revised.

Wallace goes on,

The Majority text movement…. began immediately after the epoch-making publication of Westcott and Hort’s The New Testament in the Original Greek and concomitantly the RV of the NT (1881).

The AV Bible is not based solely on the Majority Text. Neither is it solely based on the TR. There are verses in the AV Bible that are neither in the Majority Text nor the Textus Receptus. Believers need to understand this. Jack Moorman has dealt adequately with this seeming problem in his books Early Manuscripts and the Authorized Version and When the KJV Departs from the "Majority" Text. In these he supplies the ms evidence for each reading peculiar to the AV.

What complaint do the critics have against Burgon? They allege that he wrote with a vitriolic pen but they never give examples. He spoke the truth. I have read his book very carefully and I believe he spoke the truth in love. But here is their main complaint,

The bedrock of Burgon’s text-critical views was a belief in verbal-plenary inspiration and the doctrine he inferred from it, providential preservation. On this foundation he constructed four arguments (which remain the main arguments of the Majority text theory to this day): (1) a theological a priori that God has preserved the text and that such a preserved text has been accessible to the church in every age; (2) an assumption that heretics have, on a large scale, corrupted the text; (3) an argument from statistical probability related to the corollary of accessibility (viz., that the majority is more likely to contain the original wording); and (4) a pronouncement that all early Byzantine MSS must have worn out. (ibid)

The person who demurs at Burgon’s first point can hardly be saved. It is therefore at this first and most critical point that we separate ourselves from the critics. Textual critics have shown themselves notoriously hostile to the doctrines of verbal plenary inspiration and the preservation of Scripture. It is not possible to maintain these doctrines and to accept modern versions at the same time. Burgon’s other three points have been well enough established by other writers.

It is also false to suggest that Burgon was the first to stand against the critics. D Cloud in his book For Love of the Bible writes of the following men who stood for the AV/TR.: H J Todd MA published A Vindication of Our Authorized Translation in 1819, J W Whittaker MA published a defense of the AV in 1820. Then follow fifteen biographies of other 19th Century AV scholars. One other who deserves mention is Fred Nolan who in 1815 published his Inquiry into the Integrity of the Received Text. This book shows the corruption of the Alexandrian Text and demonstrates the verbal integrity of the Received Text. Nolan deals in depth with 1 John 5:7; 1 Tim.3:16, and Acts 20:28.

Wallace next criticizes E Hills as the man who ‘nearly seven decades’ later takes up the cause of the traditional text. He has this to say about him,

He argued even more strongly that did Burgon from providential preservation, for in his view the TR and not the Byzantine MSS per se was the closest text to the autographs. His dogmatic convictions about providential preservation led him to conclude that Erasmus was divinely guided when he introduced Latin Vulgate readings into his Greek text! (ibid p301.)

If divine guidance is denied to Erasmus then it must be denied to every translator. For why should any other translator receive it and not Erasmus? Critics will be quite happy with this of course. Their intellectual powers will not need the interference of the Holy Spirit.

If we believe it is God’s Book, divinely given, then we are confident that God will oversee its preservation from its origin and throughout the remainder of time, for the benefit of His people.

Having dismissed Hills, Wallace also dismisses the TR, believing that the Hodges / Farstad Majority Text of 1982 is the only serious opponent of the ‘Critical’ Text. Any still holding to the TR/AV will be regarded as anti-intellectual fundamentalists.

Wallace claims that,

The Majority Text revealed concretely that the Byzantine text-type had been poorly represented by the TR. (ibid. p302).

As though these are three different texts, or ‘text-types’. The Authorized Version is essentially the Majority text but there are some very significant differences. The Majority text excludes passages such as Acts 8:36,37 and 1 John 5:7. See again J Moorman’s book.

Wallace concedes that while both Majority and TR advocates may hold to verbal inspiration and preservation, the Majority defenders do not notice

that to grant to preservation the same doctrinal status as verbal inspiration is to deny their own claims for the Majority text and to affirm the TR.(ibid. p306.)

But Wallace will have the Majority defenders winning the day against the TR advocates, because they, the Majority defenders will not make the same fideistic leap that the TR people make. Their fideism, he writes

is stripped naked at the bar of logic and empiricism…. A theological a priori has no place in textual criticism. (ibid. p306, 309)

There Wallace spells it out again for us. The heart of the battle lies between faith in God and human wisdom; between saved men and women who know their God and unconverted scholars. This is why there are two bibles, the Authorized, and the rest (whether based on the Westcott-Hort-Nestle-UBS text or on the Hodges-Farstad Majority text.)

Only those who hold solidly to the AV Bible can hold to Verbal Inspiration and the Preservation of Scripture. The textual critic declares himself to be an unbeliever and we are to have no fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness (Eph.5:9, Rom.13:12).

Thirty years ago Eldon Ladd, a leading American Textual Critic, proclaiming himself to be an Evangelical, sought to bring to an end ‘the bitter fundamentalist-modernist controversy which raged in the early twenties’ a consequence of which ‘has been the strongly negative attitude toward biblical criticism assumed by some of the successors to the fundamentalists of the 1920’s. Such people, according to Professor Ladd, insist that the critical method is basically hostile to the evangelical faith, and they have continued to oppose it’.

The essays in The Text of the New Testament in Contemporary Research , and in particular, Wallace’s essay, show why fundamentalists (i.e. saved Bible believers) will continue to oppose modern textual criticism.

Ladd failed in his mission. His book The New Testament and Criticism did not impress Bible believers. One statement, given in his introduction and repeated on the back cover shows why he failed. It is this,

The central thesis of his book is that the ‘Bible is the Word of God given in the words of men in history,’ and as such its historical origins must be reconstructed as far as possible.

The child of God believes the Bible is the word of God given in the words of God, set down by chosen men and directed by the Holy Spirit so that every sentence, every phrase, every word, every syllable, and every jot and tittle recorded is that which God required to be recorded, without error, without human addition and without human subtraction.

Christ said, my words shall not pass away, Mat.24:35. The words of men do. If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; he is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings, perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself. 1 Tim.6:3-5.

The Bible is not comprised of the words of men. It is the critic who causes strifes of words and the injunction in this context is from such withdraw thyself.

Beware Bart Ehrman

Ehrman is an outstanding scholar and a leading world expert in Textual Criticism. His works have a great impact on the production of modern versions of the New Testament.

But Ehrman has been described in the Washington Post, March 5th 2006, as “the fundamentalist scholar who peered so hard into the origins of Christianity that he lost his faith altogether.”

He claims to have had a “born-again experience” while he was a sophomore, but later abandoned this position, preferring to accept the teaching of his apostate professor, that Mark in his gospel made a mistake. This put Ehrman well on the road of apostasy himself and he ended up denying fundamental Bible teaching, in particular the resurrection of Christ. It was not long before he believed the Bible to be full of error.

On the American TV show The Colbert Report ( which I watched) Ehrman said he was an agnostic and did not believe in God.

He wrote,

I began seeing the New Testa­ment as a very human book. The New Testament as we actually have it, I knew, was the product of human hands, the hands of the scribes who transmitted it. Then I began to see that not just the scribal text but the original text itself was a very human book. This stood very much at odds with how I had regarded the text in my late teens as a newly minted "born-again" Christian, convinced that the Bible was the inerrant Word of God and that the biblical words themselves had come to us by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. As I realized already in graduate school, even if God had inspired the original words, we don't have the original words. So the doctrine of inspiration was in a sense irrelevant to the Bible as we have it, since the words God reput­edly inspired had been changed and, in some cases, lost. Moreover, I came to think that my earlier views of inspiration were not only irrel­evant, they were probably wrong. For the only reason (I came to think) for God to inspire the Bible would be so that his people would have his actual words; but if he really wanted people to have his actual words, surely he would have miraculously preserved those words, just as he had miraculously inspired them in the first place. Given the cir­cumstance that he didn't preserve the words, the conclusion seemed inescapable to me that he hadn't gone to the trouble of inspiring them.—Whose Word is it? Continuum, 2006: p.211.

The truly born again soul is indwelt by the Holy Spirit and CANNOT apostatise.

Ehrman studied under Metzger, another notorious apostate, and is now the leading Bible critic. He is determined to destroy all trust in the Scriptures and faith in God. He is no different from all the Textual Critics who have gone before him.

ANSWERS to a Correspondent’s Criticisms of the AV Bible

"Your note....I hope will not lead to the polarising of the saints"....

Polarisation began when the first copy of the R.V. was brought into the assembly. The recovery of assembly truth in the 19th century was made through the only available version, the A.V. There was no other bible used. This Newsletter (Waymarks) is intended to bring saints back to a united stand.

We understand you to mean that my urging believers to hold to the AV Bible is divisive. This is a very serious charge to make, but it is aimed essentially against the word of God. We know that some of our leading Bible expositors are declaring the AV Bible not to be the word of God. There is only one thing we can do with these men and that is to shun them. I do not sit under the ministry of men who fault my Bible.

"No-one has any right to tell another what bible they should use"

Not even elders in the assembly? Must we tolerate confusion? Must we say nothing when we know that modern versions are the work of unregenerate men who have used lies and deceit to produce their work? If the elders in the assembly may not speak on such a fundamental matter, what may they speak on?

"If [the AV Bible] leads to defective understanding of the mind of God, then one who is better taught may well, in love, seek to enlighten, as Aquilla and Priscilla or Apollos.

No child of God was ever led to a defective understanding because he used the A.V. Bible. That the Bible God has used and blessed for 400 years could lead a saint astray in any respect is a thought that sullies the mind. In 46 years of Christian experience I have yet to meet one individual better taught through the use of modern versions. Note also that Aquilla, Priscilla and Apollos used the same Masoretic text-based Hebrew Scripture; (that on which the A.V. is based). There is no evidence that they read the Greek Septuagint.

"In those countries where English is spoken, although I have no figures to back up the supposition, it would not surprise me if souls were brought to the faith by other means than by the A.V. of 1611, in greater numbers than by that revered translation.

What are these "other means"? Appeals, squashes, youth nights, coffee mornings, ladies tea-parties, pentecostalist froth and bubble? Or do you mean "other versions", though after 400 years the A.V. is still the world's best seller. Agreed, God is sovereign and a soul might come across a fragment of the pure Word of God amongst the 5000 changes made in every modern version, and be saved by it.

"It might surprise us greatly to know just what translation God has been pleased to use in people's salvation, and to feed them with spiritual food."

Well, never mind the Reformation! Just think of the mighty revivals of the 19th century. There have been no revivals since the modern versions began to proliferate.

"God is not restricted. Who can tell Him what He ought to use?

But may we not expect God to use His own Word—that which was settled in heaven before the world was made? Would He use the words of lying men, as Westcott and Hort have been shown to be?

"The language (Paul and his company) spoke was "colloquial", for they aimed to reach the people"

I cannot find evidence of this. The N.I.V. uses colloquial speech with grievous results. I would certainly never preach in colloquial English, for this would cheapen the gospel and I want people to understand what I am saying.

"It is the content of the message that counts....A postman would lose his job if he decided he would only deliver packages of a certain colour."

He might lose his job more quickly if he started to deliver unauthorised mail !!

ONE BIBLE ONLY?

The attack on the King James (AV) Bible continues unabated. There is a faction within the so-called evangelical world which is not content with promoting modern versions of the Bible, but is resolved to destroy our time-honoured Bible together with those who hold to it. These men are neither Romanists, nor Russellites but wish to be known as conservative, fundamentalist, evangelical Christians. Many of them prove to be neo-evangelical ecumenists.

Some of these have issued a book, One Bible Only?; Kregel; 2001., containing articles by D R McLachlan, K T Bauder, D K Kutilek, R E Beacham, R W Milliman, L D Pettegrew. All of these are associated with the Central Baptist Theological Seminary, Plymouth, Minnesota.

The gist of this book is that it is erroneous to believe that the word of God exists in total any one version or translation of the Bible. They insist that the true word of God lies scattered through multitudes of manuscripts. They say God never intended that His word would be preserved within the covers of one Bible. However, they assure us that any bible can safely be regarded as the word of God as the differences between them are of little consequence. One fly in the ointment is for them a trivial thing.

They go on to say that those they describe as belonging to the King James Only Movement are ignorant, controversialist, divisive, heretics, unorthodox in doctrine and practice (these are their words), and ought to be excommunicated.

But they cannot excommunicate those who have never been in fellowship with them.. Modern versionism goes hand in hand with worldliness and liberalism, and those who love the world are not saved. We do not seek fellowship with them.

We think these men are disturbed by the growing number of students applying to their seminary who hold to the AV Bible, and this is what lies behind the publication of this book.

They use the same attack as the Mohammedans: "The Bible has been changed." (I’ve spoken to a number of these people about this, and not one could tell me how, where, or what has been changed in the Bible). Our scholars allege that the AV Bible has been changed in thousands of places. They include in this the thousands of spelling changes where the ‘f’ is changed to the modern ‘s’.

They insist that there is no faithful Masoretic text because of errors in copying. This we show to be another lie. The care of the scribes and the Masorites in copying the Hebrew Scriptures was exquisite to the extreme.

These writers accuse Bible believers of "demonizing" Westcott and Hort. The evidence is that they "demonized" themselves. All the quotes I have read concerning these two men originate from their own pens. They admitted to experimenting with Spiritism. They have not been quoted out of context. Origen too is to be held in admiration because he was a scholar. This is the man who taught that the Lord was a created angel.

We come to the heart of the matter in relation to the doctrine of Verbal Inspiration. The modernist view is that inspiration applies only to the autographs (the original manuscripts) and when they disappeared then inspiration ended.

The fact that zealous but misguided men of the past have ascribed inspiration and infallibility—a quality possessed by only the original Scriptures—to translations in Greek, Aramaic, Latin, Syriac, and German would lead us to suspect that some people might be inclined to make similar unfounded claims regarding some English Bible version. P.42.

Yet even in the preface of One Bible Only? We find quoted all Scripture is given by inspiration of God. Why do they not say what they believe,All Scripture WAS given by inspiration of God. The clear implication of the AV statement is that the Scripture, given by inspiration of God, still exists. Kutilek regards this as a heresy. The original manuscripts do not exist but God did not abandon His word to the sleight of men such as Origen, Lachmann, Tischendorf, Westcott, Hort, Nestle, Aland, Metzger, Darby as is alleged. The inspired word of God was carried forth by ordinary faithful believers through the centuries and none of it has been lost in translation. Otherwise the words all Scripture is given by inspiration of God are meaningless, and Scripture does not exist today anywhere.

The Myth of the Q Manuscript

Bible critics have been always critical to the doctrine of divine inspiration of the word of God. They reject the possibility of Scripture being God’s revelation to man. Thus they have to invent theories relating to the origin of Scripture. The apparent similarity of passages in the gospels is put down to folk-lore or the borrowing of the gospel writers from a common source.

About 150 years ago a theory was developed that Matthew and Luke based their gospels on Mark and a mythological document called Q. there remains not a shred of evidence to support this view and even Westcott was sceptical of it.

Q is an utterly mythological invention, a product of the Enlightenment. Nobody had heard of Q until the 19th Century. When I came across references to Q in my studies half a century ago I took it to be what it is—a rationalistic invention of the higher critics of the 19th C. designed to destroy faith in the inspired word of God. I thought it was no more than a fad of the 19th C. But this thing is again growing in popularity among the scholars. We shall soon have our devout conservative Bible teachers quoting it as an authority. You will know there is a movement in this direction when the public men begin referring to the “Synoptic Gospels” Synoptic means sean together, and relates to the first three gospels. From there you go to the common source view. The believer knows the common source is the Spirit of God and will then include John. The synopticists reject God and trust in their own creation of fables.

The Q myth has now been trumped by Thomas L Brodie. He tells us that there is a better source and more reliable than Q. He calls it Proto-Luke .It is based on the Septuagint. (The Birthing of the New Testament; Sheffield Pheonix Press; 2004).He writes:

In the long term, Proto-Luke works better [than Q]. It accounts for almost all Q texts, either directly ,indirectly (through its influence on the Mathew and canonical Luke0, or in conjunction with Matthew’s Logia. And it accounts for far more gospel data, beginning with Mark’s gospel. Inother words, it solves more problems than Q and does so more comprehensively.

The modern ploughboy, particularly if he is a born again Bible believer, will know this to be mere scholarly claptrap. The Spirit of God gave the word which we now have in our own tongue. I only bother to include this nonsense because in short time our eminent brethren will be quoting it from the platforms.

It must follow that if the early gospel accounts were produced from some yet undiscovered source, be it Q or Proto-Luke, there is no reason why they should not be further modified as new “discoveries” are made. Modern textual critics regard the verbal inspiration of Scripture as a discredited theory and if there ever was such it could apply only to the autographs. These disappeared almost as soon as the ink was dry so nobody can be too sure about anything today. Hence theories as to the transmission of Scripture abound.

Bart D. Ehrman has his theory. He has written about it in his book The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture; the Effect of Early Christological Controversies on the Text of Scripture; OUP;1993.

He writes

Theological disputes, specifically disputes over Christology, prompted Christian scribes to alter the words of Scripture in order to make them more serviceable for the polemical task. Scribes modified their manuscripts to make them more patently “orthodox” and less susceptible to “abuse” by the opponents of orthodoxy.

The Orthodox in early church history were those who predominated against the Heretical. Ehrman insists that it is not a matter of which party was right; he does not wish to make a judgment. It is just that the stronger side were officially the Orthodox. So they changed the Scriptures to accommodate their theology. Thus they produced the Byzantine text so-called to which our AV Bible is so closely related. We conclude therefore that they must be the heretical who in our day are so furiously changing the text back —to what we call the Alexandrian text. These “heretics” which include Metzger, Aland, those mentioned above, and many others, are now the Orthodox and born again Bible believers are the heretics.

But saved scribes would never have altered the text. They believed in the verbal inspiration of Scripture and knew from the beginning what was inspired and what not because the apostles knew and would have taught them thus. (2 Peter 3: 16) Saved men and women do NOT set out to deceive. Those first Christian copyists had a deep reverence for the word of God and believed every jot and tittle to be given of God. There is no way they would have thought to improve on what God had given.

It would not be feasible for one scribe to make his alteration and this to be found in all the copies of the “Orthodox”! The vast majority of the manuscripts of the “Orthodox” agree with each other. Only a few such as the Vaticanus and the Siniaticus show themselves to be seriously mutilated. The only way universal agreement could have been obtained (if God had not given the word in the first place) would be by the collusion of all copyists. This is more or less what Westcott and Hort thought had happened when they invented their recension theory —a theory which was very quickly discredited.

Believers would not consider altering the text because they believe God’s word was settled in heaven. For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven. (Ps.119: 89). Believers seek to continue in the faith grounded and settled, (Col.1: 23) and there is nothing more unsettling to faith than to be told that the Bible is defective in so many places, so much of it having been changed.

Believers do not accept an evolving Bible but this is the warp and woof of textual criticism. Ehrman begins his book with these words,

The one level I will be concerned with in the present study involves manuscripts of the evolving Christian Scriptures—what would eventually be called the New Testament.

Ehrman, as far as I can determine, has never made a claim to being saved. Not many Textual Critics are saved. A settled definitive Bible is a fundamental to the faith. Without it faith cannot exist. His bible may be freely altered, as all modern versions are. We are now getting updates of updates.

Ehrman mentions many alleged scribal interpolations. Some of these have been dealt within past issues of Waymarks. There is not one interpolation in my Bible.

Here is one evidence out of many listed by Ehrman where he believes the “orthodox” corrupted the text. It is in relation to the virgin birth of Christ. See my comments above, AV Verses Vindicated, Lk. 2: 33,48.

Ps.11:3 If the foundations be destroyed, what can the righteous do?

The foundation of our faith is settled in the word of God. Eph. 2: 20 tells believers that they are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone. If harm is to be done to the cause of Christ and to His people, Satan must do it through attacks upon the foundations. The Scriptures must be destroyed. This, the believer knows, is an impossibility for the word of God endureth for ever. But believers must be urged to question its authenticity—“hath God said?” was Satan’s first lie, right back in the Garden of Eden.

Satan has many apostate scholars in his employ who will impugn the word of God, but he knows believers will take little notice of them so he must use men who use the Conservative⁄ Fundamental label. He uses good, well taught Bible preachers.

THE ROMISH ATTACK ON SCRIPTURE

Rome has always been hostile to the word of God. The reason being that the edicts of popery are considered to have more weight than the words of Scripture. Rome has historically regarded it dangerous to allow ordinary folk to read the Scriptures in their own language. They will learn the falsity of Romanism and read the fate of Rome, the Mother of Harlots.

Rome’s hostility has been manifested in the treatment of Wycliffe, spoken of as the Morning Star of the Reformation, who produced an English Bible in the 14th century. His bones were dug up and cast into the river. Later, believers were burnt at the stake because they believed the word of God. Tyndale’s bibles were seized and burned. He also went to the stake.

From the 19th century Rome began a new tactic by following the philosophy “if you can’t beat ‘em, join ‘em”. So Jesuits infiltrated

the Bible Societies, until today the Bible Society which produces almost all the modern versions is well influenced by Rome. Cardinal Martini is an editor of the United Bible Societies Greek New Testament upon which modern translations are based. Martini is the R C Archbishop of Milan. Despite this it remained impossible for Roman Catholics to buy a Bible in some pasts of the British Isles (Ireland) well into the 20th century.

Rome’s hostility to the English Bible was revealed in the Douay-Westminster version, 1958 A D. There we read,

Tyndale’s Protestant text was soon followed by others, Coverdale’s Bible 1535, ‘Matthew’s’ Bible (J. Rogers) 1537, the Great Bible 1539 (often know [sic] as Cranmer’s because of his preface to the 2nd edition.), Taverner’s 1539, the Geneva (Whittingham) 1560, and the Bishop’s Bible’ [sic] 1568; to which should be added the English translations of Erasmus’ Latin New Testament in 1540, and of Beza’a in 1576, the latter, by Tomson, replacing the New Testament in the Geneva Bible (from 1603). (The Authorized Version, 1611, of course, came after both Rheims and Douay.)

The above were the texts of which Dr Allen, president of Douay College, wrote in 1578: ‘Our adversaries , however, have at their fingertips from some heretical version all those passages of Scripture which seem to make for them, and by a certain deceptive adaptation and alteration of the sacred words produce the effect of appearing to say nothing but what comes from the Bible. This evil might be remedied if we too had some Catholic version of the Bible, for all the English versions are most corrupt…. If his Holiness shall judge it expedient, we ourselves will endeavour to have the Bible faithfully, purely, and genuinely translated according to the edition approved by the Church, for we have men most fitted for the work’.

The task was entrusted to Gregory Martin – The History of the Rheims-Douay version p.261

The 1958 Westminster edition carries an introductory message from Pope Pius XII (Pacelli). He wrote, “We warmly welcome this new edition of a family Bible prepared for English speaking Catholics.” This man has been labeled “Hitler’s Pope. His reign covered the 2nd world war. He gave no reaction to Kristallnacht in 1938 and was not only anti-semitic but pro Nazi. This is the man who announced himself as infallible and declared the assumption of Mary, that is she was carried bodily up into heaven at her death.

We give below a comparison of some of its readings with the AV and the NIV. We note the similarities between the Westminster Version and the NIV readings of which Rome approves.

Matt. 1: 25

AV- And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son:

WV-. “And he knew her not till she brought forth a son;” First born omitted.

NIrV.- “But he did not have sex with her until after she gave birth to a son”. In this wretched perversion not only is the Romish lie of the perpetual virginity of Mary maintained but the discrete language of the AV is replaced with gutter phraseology.

Luke 14: 5

AV. -Which of you shall have an ass or an ox fallen into a pit….

WV.- “Which of you, if his son or his ox fall into a well…”

NIrV “Suppose one of you has a child or an ox that falls into a well…”

Griesbach, Greek scholar (?) and notorious Bible hater appears among the first (Critical Greek and English Testament; Bagster; undated 19th C.) to produce a Greek New Testament (1805 AD) reading uios (son) in place of onos (ass)

John 1: 18

AV. -No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

WV.- “God no man hath seen at any time; God only-begotten, whom is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”

NIrV.- “No-one has ever seen God. But God the One and Only, is at the Father’s side. And he has shown us what God is like.”

J. Moorman comments: “This is the classic Gnostic perversion with its doctrine of ‘intermediary gods.’ It is the trademark of corruption in the early Egyptian manuscripts which unfortunately spread to some others.” (Early Manuscripts and the Authorized Version; BFT)

John 3: 13

AV.- And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.

WV. “No one hath gone up into heaven but he who hath come down from heaven, the S on of Man.

NIrV. “No-one has ever gone into heaven except the One who came from heaven. He is the Son of Man.”

The omnipresence of the Son is denied by omitting the final phrase.

Col. 1: 14

AV.- In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins.

WV. “In whom we have redemption,”

NIrV. “Because of what the Son has done, we have been set free. Because of him, all our sins have been forgiven”.

through his blood is omitted in most modern versions. This omission prevents forgiveness of sins.

Col. 2:11

AV. -In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ.

WV. “In him again it is that ye were circumcised with a circumcision not made with hands, the stripping off of your fleshly body.”

NIrV. “When you received Christ, you were also circumcised by putting away your sinful nature. Human hands didn’t circumcise you. Christ did.”

We note that Scofield follows the Romish text, calling for the omission of “the sins of” in his notes. The NIrV goes even further, claiming an end to our sinful nature so teaching sinless perfection – a nature that has nothing in it that can respond to sin. So we are all gods.

1 Tim. 3: 16

AV. -God was manifest in the flesh

WV. “Who was manifested in flesh.”

NIrV. “Jesus appeared in a body.”

WV and NIrV both deny the Lord’s deity.

2 Tim. 3: 16

AV.- All Scripture is given by inspiration of God.

WV.”Every scripture is inspired of God.”

NIrV. “God has breathed life into all Scripture.” The NIrV teaches here that Scripture first existed without life.

Hebrews 1: 3

AV. …When he had by himself purged our sins…

WV.- “Having made a cleansing from sin.” By removing “our”, the implication is the cleansing was from His own sin. It is a highly blasphemous reading.

NIRV.- “He provided the way for people to be made pure from sin.” This also is a denial of Christ’s sacrificial death. “The way” might be by ritualistic observances or self-effort. It was not a way at all. It was by Himself. “People” denies any personal application. It was our sins.

James 2: 20

AV.-But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?

WV. -“Faith without works is idle.” So the vain man refuses to admit to his dead ( therefore non-existent) faith .

NIrV.- “You foolish person! Do you want proof that faith without good works is useless?” Both these perversions teach that you

can have faith and therefore be right with God without the slightest evidence of it in one’s life.

James 5: 16

AV.-Confess your faults one to another,

WV.- “Confess ye therefore yours sins to one another.” The change from faults to sins legitimizes the confessional box, and opens the way for lasciviousness. Lustful appetites are whetted by learning about the sins of others.

The AV word faults translates paraptoma, which can mean a lapse or unintentional error. The common verb for sin is hamartano.

This is the word that appears in v.15, if he have committed sins. These two words are NOT synonyms. Wilful sin is dealt with in v.15, faults are dealt with in v.16. Confusing these two issues is a serious error. Wilful mistranslation is a very serious sin.

NIrV- “So admit to one another that you have sinned.” These folk again follow the Romish lie.

1 Peter 2: 2

AV.- As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby.

WV.- “Yearn for uncontaminated spiritual milk, that thereon ye may grow unto salvation.” Rome claims that she alone provides

uncontaminated spiritual milk so the word is removed. Rome still hates God’s Word.

J Moorman adds, “A classic salvation by works alteration which despite its uncial and versional support, cannot possibly be right.

The NIV/NASV translators did not translate literally here!!”

1 John 5: 7-8

AV. For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

WV.- These verses are missing the underlined words

These words are also missing from most modern versions. Those who have any doubts as to their integrity need to read Michael Maynard’s book A History of the Debate over 1 John 5: 7-8; Comma Publications. Read also the T B S leaflet Why 1 John 5.7-8 is in the Bible. Particularly, read Jack Moorman’s When the KJV departs from the “Majority” Text, ch.6; B F T.

Rev. 5: 10 (Also see Rev. 1: 6)

AV.- And hast made us unto our God kings and priests, and we shall reign on the earth.

WV. “And hast made them a kingdom and priests to our God and they shall reign upon the earth.”

NIrV. “You have made them members of a royal family. You have made them priests to serve our God .They will rule on the earth.”

All the Bible critics have followed Greisbach with this alteration. Only only the sovereign in a kingdom can reign Not all members of a royal family can rule/reign at the same time. But God has made His people kings and they ALL will reign.

Rev. 22: 14

AV. Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life.

WV. “Blessed are they that wash their robes, in order that they may have aright to the tree of life.”

NIrV. “Blessed are those who wash their robes. They will have the right to come to the tree of life.”

There is massive manuscript evidence for the RT/AV reading. The WV/NIrV readings are popish.

The Scholar’s Nearly Accurate bible

“It is only in regard to one word in a thousand that the textual critics, by laborious comparison of manuscripts, have to determine the exact reading of the original text.” ¾A McD. Redwood; The Faith¾A Symposium;p327; P & I Ltd. 1952. (This book has been reprinted.)

When will they ever learn? The same old lies are still being propagated. Inspect any modern version since 1952 and see if only one word in a thousand is changed. And how did they select that “one word” in a thousand? By turning to seriously depraved (acknowledged to be so by themselves) manuscripts that had been known and rejected by the early church. Of course, these men had never seen the original text and so felt free to invent their own.

Redwood then quotes Kenyon’s book The Story of the Bible¾

It may be disturbing to some to part with the conception of a Bible handed down through the ages without alteration and in unchallenged authority; but it is a higher ideal to face the facts, to apply the best powers with which God has endowed us to the solution of the problems which they present to us; and it is reassuring at the end to find that the general result of all these discoveries and all this study is to strengthen the proof of the authenticity of the Scriptures, and our conviction that we have in our hands, in substantial integrity, the veritable Word of God.

Kenyon, along with all scholars, thought that only ignoramuses believed in the preservation of Scripture. Kenyon thought it more noble to rely on his own intellect to decide what is Scripture and what is not. He was proud to announce that through all his endeavours he very nearly had a bible he could trust.

Redwood, perhaps realizing that Kenyon’s views seriously undermine faith, and writing in a book supposedly giving a symposium of the faith, lamely closed his chapter How we got our Bible with these words¾

Let it be stated categorically that all the authorities in the field of textual criticism assure us that no single doctrine of the Gospel is affected by any of the variations still unexplained.

Well, they would say that, wouldn’t they? But “the authorities... assure us”? Are we not able to read for ourselves? Are we so ignorant that we don’t know what the “doctrines of the Gospel” are? What about the variations that are explained? Do we ignore them? Which are these unexplained ones and why can they not be explained?

In any case we know that doctrines are affected. David Cloud in his book Myths about the Modern Bible Versions lists fifty doctrines removed, weakened, changed, or added in the UBS Greek Text and the Modern Versions.

Because of these views put out by leading brethren in a past generation we have now a situation where anything goes. A few years ago brethren would read publicly from the AV Bible and then tell us why the JND New Translation or the Revised Version was superior. Now we find audacious men who mount the platform and read from the NIV or the NKJB. We have a situation of confusion and a decline in faith.

Beware Double Talk

“We believe this solemn truth [a literal hell fire] because we believe God’s holy word”. Harold Paisley (Ian’s brother); Words in Season; * 2002.

“It is our view that this is indeed the correct language of the text... “Death where is thy victory” 1 Cor.15: 55, RV.

Harold Paisley; Words in Season; May 2002.

Death in v.55 is translated from thanatos O death, where is thy sting? (AV).

But the Authorized Bible reads O grave, where is thy victory. Hades in every other place but here is translated hell. It is never translated death and doesn’t mean death though the dead are there. Thus H Paisley believes his “view” to be superior to the word given by the Holy Spirit. His “view” is that two or three Alexandrian Greek Manuscripts, rejected by believers from the beginning, are superior to the vast majority of manuscripts which comprise the Received Text on which our authorized Bible is based.

When H Paisley says “we believe God’s word” he is guilty of double talk. He believes a bible of his own making. “Death where is thy victory” is NOT God’s holy word. It is not His word a all.

It is double talk when a man states publicly (in this case J Hunter, internet audio) “we believe the Bible to be inspired” and then a few minutes later, announces only the original manuscripts were free from error. So we conclude he believed in a bible not free from error yet inspired of God. This view impugns the righteousness of God, charging Him with inspiring error.

It is double talk when a man tells his audience “the Bible can be trusted” but believes it to be less than perfect, flawed in many places due to scribal mistakes etc. His audience doesn’t know which are the mistakes and what is genuine.

It is double talk to suggest that God could keep men from error in writing the autographs (original manuscripts) but has been incompetent ever since; unable because of human fallibility, to preserve the Scriptures from error. If this should be true then God must be charged with dishonesty. The Bible contains numerous promises to the preservation of Scripture. Ps. 12: 6,7; Ps. 119: 89; Mtt. 24: 35; John 10: 35; 1 Peter 1: 22-25. etc.

AV Verses Vindicated Pt.1 Old Testament

AV Verses Vindicated (collated from Waymarks issues 1-52)

In recent years it has become fashionable to question the reliability of translation in hundreds of places in the AV Bible. The underlying Hebrew and Greek texts, known as the Masoretic (for the OT) and the Received Text (for the NT) are also questioned in hundreds of places. None of these is justified. Holding to the AV Bible is not merely a matter of faith or tradition. There is ample evidence available to confirm the reliability of the English Authorized Bible.

Some tell us that only the original Scriptures were inspired. If that is so then we have no Scripture today for ALL Scripture IS given by inspiration of God, 2 Tim.3:16. What is not inspired is not Scripture. But inspiration is not lost through translation as the many OT (Hebrew) verses quoted in the NT (Greek) prove.

A correspondent has reminded me of a statement made by Mr. Newberry in his introduction to his Englishman's Bible. There we read "The plenary inspiration of the original Scriptures is taken for granted. The original Scriptures disappeared a long time ago so we conclude that there are no plenary inspired scriptures existing today, according to Mr. Newberry. So we have no trustworthy Bible today and we are compelled to accept the opinions of the "experts". But having given His inspired word, would God not be able to preserve that same word for ever? Or is the Scripture The Word of the Lord endureth for ever false? And what about Isa.48v.8; 1Pet.1v.23; Ps.12vv.6,7?

Our God is able to preserve His own Word,: For ever, O Lord, Thy word is settled in heaven. Psalm 119:89. If God's word is settled in heaven, why should it be unsettled on earth? Heaven and Earth shall pass away but my words shall not pass away, Mt.24:35. That the original manuscripts no longer exist is not surprising, as they would have been very quickly worn out through constant handling. But they were faithfully copied multitudes of times. Early translations were also made such as the 2nd Cent. Peshitto in the Syriac language. The vast majority of manuscripts and early versions are in agreement with the Received Text.

We can have confidence in our AV Bible. Its pedigree can be traced to at least the 2nd Century. The text of the RV and subsequent versions was shown to be corrupt more than 100 years ago, being based on two depraved manuscripts; the Sinaiticus and the Vaticanus. These two are still the basis of the modern evolving text of Nestle/UBS.

I wish to show in the following verses that departure from the AV reading is unwarranted. All the verses referred to have appeared in Waymarks between August 1993 and February 2002.

It is recommended that in order to understand the comments in this work, the context of each passage under consideration is read and meditated upon.

OLD TESTAMENT

Genesis 1:1,2

In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was on the face of the deep.

On page 26 of the Genesis commentary in the What the Bible Teaches series, the author quotes two verses from the RV; “...waste and void; and darkness was on the face of the deep¨, and “God...formed the earth and made it; he established it, he created it not a waste, he formed it to be inhabited¨.(Isa.45:18).

These two spurious readings favour the “Gap Theory” which teaches that God didn’t originally create the world a waste but by Gen.1:2 it had become so. Therefore the first “day” of creation actually begins at verse two. This is implied in the commentary:

The process of creating order continues throughout the six days.

But before [my italics] this orderly distinction of things which differ was established, a series of steps had to be gone through. Initially the earth “was waste and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep” RV). In Isaiah we learn (45:18) that “God... created it not a waste”.

The AV Bible has The earth was without form, and void. (1:2) That is, in the initial act of creation the earth was unformed and unfilled. Isaiah 45:18 tells us he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited. The earth was not created to no purpose, but that it might be inhabited.

The translators of the AV were well aware that the same Hebrew word occurs in both passages, but with obviously different shades of meaning. If the meanings should be the same then a contradiction exists and the only acceptable explanation is the Gap Theory where a cataclysmic disaster occurs between the first two verses of Genesis, and God has to start again. Pember in his book Earth’s Earliest Ages taught the existence of a pre-Adamic race. The Gap Theory denies that sin came in by one man, but that it existed in a race previous to Adam’s. It is therefore a serious error, denying Romans 5:12 and with it the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ.

Genesis 3: 15

And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

This is the first prophecy in Scripture concerning Christ as Redeemer. Of this man’s seed hath God according to his promise raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus (Acts 13: 23). This man being David, seed of Eve. In Luke ch. 3, the Lord’s genealogy is traced back, via David, to Adam. The prophecy is very clear.

Yet the RC Westminster version (1958 AD) reads “I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.” The change of gender is very audacious and is designed to promote Mariolatry.

Not even the RSV Catholic edition makes such a change, but reads “…he shall bruise your head and you shall bruise his heel”.

The Catholic New American Bible; (1970AD) retains the masculine form and a footnote links this verse with the promise of a Redeemer.

According to M Marlowe; Bible Research, this NAB version displeased Pope John Paul II because of its inclusive language.

Genesis 3:21

Unto Adam also and to his wife did the Lord make coats of skins, and clothed them.

Anyone with no knowledge of Hebrew but able to use a Hebrew/English interlinear Bible in conjunction with a Bagster's Lexicon will discover that the Hebrew gohr is singular, (=skin, not skins). The plural would spoil the type, we are told, speaking of the redemptive work of Christ. The clothing of Adam and Eve is indeed a beautiful picture of redemption in Christ, but is the AV translation wrong? No type can sufficiently portray the anti-type, the Lord Jesus. Hence two goats were required on the day of Atonement. Also the tabernacle required a covering of rams' skins dyed red, and a covering above of badgers' skins. One skin simply would not have been sufficient. All, together, must speak of the glories and perfections of the Lord Jesus, and then only faintly.

In this connection we find an interesting verse, I clothed thee also with broidered work, and shod thee with badgers' skin, Ezek.16:10. Here God speaks of His love towards an erring Israel. We suggest, in view of the use and symbolism of badger skins that these animals were used to clothe Adam and Eve. One skin would not be enough to cover one person nor to speak of Christ.

For those who still demur at the AV translation, we refer to the verse before Ezek.16:10, where we read in v.9, I throughly washed away thy blood from thee, then note the marginal reading, "Heb.=bloods" . Putting bloods into the English reading would make nonsense of our language, so the translators used the singular instead of the plural. Skins is a faithful translation. Bear in mind that there is probably none alive today with the command of languages that these AV translators had. They were right in Gen.3:21, we conclude.

Genesis 4: 7

If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him.

Whether khat-taw-aw’ should be translated “sin” or “sin offering” depends on the context. Where a sin offering is involved it is usually obvious from the passage, as we find in the first mention in the Bible ─ But the flesh of the bullock, and his skin, and his dung, shalt thou burn with fire without the camp: it is a sin offering. Ex.29: 14

(The first time an offering is mentioned is in Gen. 4: 3,5 where the offerings were voluntary.) Cain’s offering, a bloodless offering, was unacceptable to God. Cain sinned in making such an offering and with this he was charged. If he would not acknowledge his error, sin, lying at the door would enter and seize hold of him, desiring to master him. Failure to master (rule over) sin in his life would have disastrous consequences.

Those who insist that the English Bible is defective in this reading will need to explain how a sin offering would desire Cain, and how he could rule over it.

Genesis 4:8

And Cain talked with Abel his brother: and it came to pass, when they were in the field, that Cain rose up against Abel his brother, and slew him.

The editor of What the Bible Teaches tells his readers that “all the authors share the conviction that the Bible in its entirety is the Word of God”. But the first contributor, the author of the Genesis commentary, wrote concerning 4:8, (p.50),

Verse 8 also contains a verbal oddity. It opens with the incomplete statement, “And Cain told Abel his brother...” (RV). The Septuagint reads, “And Cain said to his brother Abel, Let us go out into the field/plain”. If this is a correct reading then a clause has dropped out of the Hebrew manuscripts because it had an ending similar to the next clause. This is the solution followed in the REB, NIV and other versions; it is also noted in the RV margin. This text would lead smoothly into the account of the murder, but it is difficult to be sure it is correct.

The author lacks the conviction that verse eight is the word of God in any version! He thinks that a part of the Bible has got lost, or else it has been tampered with making it difficult [for the critics] to be sure it is correct. Thus verbal inspiration is denied.

The words of Matt.11:25 are pertinent in this connection: Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes. That is, the verse in our AV Bible is clearly understood by simple believers to mean exactly what it says.

Genesis 36: 24

And these are the children of Zibeon; both Ajah, and Anah: this was that Anah that found the mules (yem) in the wilderness, as he fed the asses of Zibeon his father.

The RV and most modern versions has “....this is Anah who found the hot springs in the wilderness.”

There are no Hebrew manuscripts carrying a variant reading. The word is yem and means mule.

However, Kittel’s Biblia Hebraica has a footnote showing that the Versio Syriaca Hexaplaris has a variant reading, changing the word (in Syriac) to mean springs. Jerome’s Vulgate (Latin) has the same change. It is suggested that the author of the Syriac version altered yemim (mules)to mayim (springs) and Jerome later took this up.

Clarke tells us that Bochart believed the Emim are meant.

yem occurs here only in the O.T. and is not the common word for mules but this is no excuse for altering the word of God.

Isaac Leeser in his The Twenty four books of the Holy Scriptures, carefully translated ACCORDING TO THE MASORETIC TEXT after the best Jewish Authorities; Bloch Publishing co. 1907, reads “....this was that Anah that found the mules...”

Anah discovered (found) how to cross horses with asses and he produced the first mules. After this mules are referred to in the O.T. as pered ....and they brought ....horses and mules (1 Kings 10: 25). So the reason mules are not mentioned in Scripture before this point is simple: there weren’t any.

Genesis 37:3

Now Israel loved Joseph more than all his children, because he was the son of his old age: and he made him a coat of many colours.

The latest volume of John Ritchie’s What the Bible Teaches, a commentary on Genesis, has this to say about this verse:-

Our translation “of many colours” (PASSIM-6446) derives from the ancient Greek versions, for the word is not common. The word is found in Scripture only in this chapter and in 2 Samuel 13:18,19 where David’s daughter Tamar had a similar garment, for with such robes were the king’s daughters that were virgins apparelled¨. Most modern translators prefer to translate the word as meaning “long¨ or “long-sleeved¨. A long or long-sleeved, robe might mark the favoured son out as being above manual labour.

We note that modern translators are not too sure what kind of a coat Joseph had. The AV is specific. The Ritchie commentary tells us that our AV translators had no idea what the Hebrew word meant so they had to go to a later Greek translation.

In fact, the AV translators were aware of the possibility of a different meaning, so they put the less likely meaning in the margin. The word they put in the margin was ”pieces”, not “long¨ or long-sleeved” for which there is no authority whatsoever.

Deuteronomy 1:1,5

These be the words which Moses spake unto all Israel on this side Jordan in the wilderness....

The NIV has "east of Jordan" instead of this side Jordan. Critics will argue that this is quite correct. It was on the east side of Jordan, in the wilderness, that Moses spoke to the children of Israel. Moses died there in the wilderness and the people then journeyed westward into the promised land.

The implication behind this change is that the authorship of Deuteronomy is challenged. If the words this side are correct then Deuteronomy was written in the wilderness prior to the occupation of Canaan, and could only have been written by Moses. By making this change the NIV is suggesting that though Moses spoke the words, they may not have been recorded until a much later date. The RV (an obsolete version) read "beyond Jordan", declaring thereby that Moses certainly did not write the book of Deuteronomy. Most other versions have something similar.

So is this side a true translation? Those turning to a concordance might feel that doubt remains because the Hebrew word is geh-ver which may be translated "the other side", "the side of", "beyond", "this side", etc. depending on the context. All translators therefore have to make a judgment as to which word to use.

There is no problem for the believer because Deuteronomy states that when Moses had made an end of WRITING the words of this law in a book, he commanded that the book be placed in the side of the Ark of the Covenant, (31:24). "This law" is the whole book of Deuteronomy, which Moses began to declare on this side Jordan (1:5).

The AV translators believed in the verbal inspiration of Scripture. They knew that Moses both spoke and wrote Deuteronomy in the wilderness, east of Jordan, which from his point of view was this side. To translate any other wise is mischievous, deceitful, an abuse of the word of God. It reveals a heart of blind unbelief and wilful opposition to the things of God. Such versions cannot be trusted and need to be rejected in their entirety. The strange thing is that modern versions do acknowledge Moses to be the writer ("so Moses wrote down this law and gave it to the priests" 31:9,NIV). Presumably they think he did it posthumously.

We hear one last cry from the unbeliever; "if Moses wrote the whole of Deuteronomy how is it we read o f his death and burial in the final chapter?" We patiently reply, "because God had told him all about it. Why don't you read the book?

Deuteronomy has been under attack very largely because of its prophetic character. Moses forewarned the children of Israel before they ever entered into the promised land that they would deny their God and therefore would be driven back out into captivity, scattered among the nations. (As they are today).But they would be restored to their land at the coming again of the Lord (30:1-5). Moses believed in the premillenial return of Christ. Those who do not believe Moses do not believe Christ. He said, Had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me (John 5:46).

Challenging the authorship of books of the Bible is the work of Higher Criticism. Those who hold to the NIV show that they are tainted by both Higher and Lower (Textual) Criticism. The two cannot be divorced.

Judges 6:11,12

Gideon threshed wheat by the wine press, to hide it from the Midianites. And the angel of the Lord appeared unto him, and said unto him, The Lord is with thee, thou mighty man of valour.

Perversions of Scripture, from JND's New Translation (1878) onwards, and unbelieving commentaries (What the Bible teaches; Joshua, Judges, Ruth, edited by W S Stevely and D E West) would have Gideon threshing wheat IN the wine press, thus discrediting him and the angel of the Lord. There would have been nothing particularly valiant in this. It would have been physically impossible to THRESH wheat in a wine press, especially if he were using a stick, as some suggest. He might have trodden out a few grains for his own use but the reference to his valour tells us he was doing it for all Israel. No one else had sufficient courage to do what he was doing, for fear of the Midianites. So he would need space. The Midianites would be watching the threshing floors, so, it not being the time of the grape harvest, he threshed BY the wine press. The Midianites would not think to look there.

The scholars will tell us that the Hebrew preposition may be translated "in" as well as "by", but they merely follow that parody of Scripture, the Septuagint. The use of "in" here makes a mockery of the truth. Reliable translations read "by".

1 Samuel 13:21

Yet they had a file for the mattocks, and for the coulters, and for the forks, and for the axes, and to sharpen the goads.

Prof. David Gooding wrote concerning this verse: " In 1 Sam.13:21 there occur the Hebrew letter [sic] pym. Now for centuries no one knew exactly what these letters meant in this context. The AV Translators did their best and came up with a translation of the verse, 'they had a file for the mattocks'. In comparatively recent times, however, as Alan Millard has reminded us in a very interesting article (Bulletin of the Anglo Israel Archeological Society, Vol.6, 1986-8, p.46), archeologists discovered a number of ancient weights inscribed in the early Hebrew script with the letters pym - just like years ago we used to see big brass weights in butchers' shops stamped with the letters 1lb, or 2lbs. From the weight of these ancient Hebrew weights it was easy to deduce that the letters pym inscribed on them meant 'two thirds of a shekel'.

In the light of this new information we can see that 1 Sam. 13:21 means, not 'they had a file for the mattocks', but' and a charge was a pym for the ploughshares'.... We should be grateful to God for the work of archeologists and scholars which enable us to obtain ever more exact and precise renderings of His infallible word". The Word; issue 34; p.4.

The professor has not done his homework. The AV Old Testament is based on the Masoretic text in which the word pym occurs nowhere. It is therefore not a Bible word. The Hebrew word found in 1 Sam.13:21 is p'tzee-rah, which our translators, being Hebrew scholars as yet unsurpassed, knew meant 'a file'. they gave a fuller meaning in the margin without any hint of a doubt attached to it.

It is likely that the Hebrew text was first mutilated by Origen when he produced his Septuagint version. Certainly the change is made there. this has been seized upon by modern Bible mutilators who cannot bear to think that God would faithfully preserve His word.

I have an exact and precise translation of God's infallible word. It is called 'The Holy Bible'. It is the Authorized Version. One blemish alone would make it unholy, but there are no flies in this precious ointment. I do not need ungodly and apostate men scrabbling in the dirt for MY bible to be ever updated. I am not an evolutionist!

The verse tells us that though no smith was to be found in the land (what a sad day that was!) yet they had a file which maybe they had hidden from the Philistines. Just as Saul and Jonathan had managed to hide their swords from the Philistines, v.22.

2 Kings 8:26

Two and twenty years old was Ahaziah when he began to reign; and he reigned one year in Jerusalem. And his mother’s name was Athaliah, the daughter of Omri king of Israel.

2 Chron.22:2

Forty and two years old was Ahaziah when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem. His mother¡¦s name also was Athaliah the daughter of Omri.

The Bible critics love these verses as they seem (to them) to be a plain contradiction. They reason for this contradiction (they say) is that some careless scribe made the error, writing forty two instead of twenty two in 2 Chronicles.

This is very strange because most of the alterations in the manuscripts are made by scribes correcting earlier errors (so they tell us). But they missed this one. So one scribe got it wrong and for the next few millenia it was accepted as a known error that nobody knew how to deal with until the NIV came along and changed it without so much as a footnote to let you know that the word of God had been altered.

There was no possibility of a scribal error. Those who think so deny the verbal inspiration of Scripture. The suggestion of scribal error is made out of ignorance because the Jews and the Masoretes took a most exquisite care in copying the manuscripts. Any mistake would have been instantly noted and the whole page destroyed and rewritten. The same care was taken with the New Testament documents.

The believer accepts the word of God as it stands. He may not always understand it and may not always have a slick answer to explain away difficulties. But he does believe it. We do not have to have an “answer” in order to believe what we read on the holy page. We believe it and then wait for the Holy Spirit to teach us.

But the difficulty is not so great with these verses. Here is one very simple explanation. The Chronicler is obviously writing from a different viewpoint to that of the writer of the book of Kings.

In 2 Kings 8:26 Ahaziah was anointed king at the age of twenty two but because of continuing conflict he was not able to occupy the throne until he was forty two. And then it was necessary for the inhabitants of Jerusalem to intervene. A reason for this is given by Bullinger in his Companion Bible:-

Forty and two years old = a son of forty-two years: i.e. of the house of Omri, on account of his connection with it through his mother (832-790=42). In 2 Kings 8:26 Ahaziah¡¦s actual age (twenty-two years) is given when he began to reign (790) during the two years of his father¡¦s disease. His father, Jehoram, was thirty-two when he began to reign with Jehoshaphat, two years before the latter¡¦s death (2 Kings 8:16). This was in 796. Jehoram therefore was born in 828. Ahaziah, his son, being twenty-two when he began his co-regency, was therefore born in 812; his father being sixteen years old.

Some like to tell us that there were two Ahaziahs, uncle and nephew, and that sometimes close relatives are counted as having the same parentage.

It has also been pointed out that Ahaziah is sometimes referred to as Azariah and that 2 Chron.21:2 tells us of two Azariahs, both sons of Jehoshaphat. Bullinger¡¦s explanation seems the most likely. In any case we know that the Bible is true.

Nehemiah 4: 23

None of us put off our clothes saving that everyone put them off for washing.

JND “none of us put off our garments; everyone had his weapon on his right side.” (footnote: others [read]: “to the water”.)

NASB “….each took his weapon to the water”.

RV “everyone went with his weapon to the water.” (footnote: Some scholars emend the MT reading “the waters” to “in his right hand” or “they held on the right side”)

ESV “each kept his weapon at his right hand”

JERUSALEM BIBLE (Jewish) everyone brought his weapon with him, even to the water.”

NIV “…each had his weapon, even when he went for water”. (footnote: The meaning of the Hebrew for this clause is uncertain”.

There are a number of versions and translations that agree with the AV. Among them are the Bishops Bible, Geneva Bible, Newberry Bible, and also the Latin Vulgate and RC Bibles. The RV footnote gives the game away! It is not a matter of some Hebrew manuscripts having a different reading —The Massoretic Text (MT) is accepted here but the scholars don’t like it. Bear in mind that most of these scholars are unconverted men. The AV translators had little problem with the text and the way the AV reads makes perfect sense. The AV margin (Or, everyone went with his weapon for water) shows that the translators were aware of a possible alternative meaning but gave it less weight.

The alterations to the AV made by the critics demonstrates that they do not trust any Bible to be the inspired word of God.

Darby’s reading implies that everyone was left-handed. They would have to be to draw their weapon from their right side. Read Judges 3: 15,16, Ehud was a left-handed man and had his dagger on his right thigh. It was one cubit in length. It is not possible to draw such a weapon from the right side with the right hand; even less so a full length sword. This is enough to show up Darby’s ignorance. He made up his own reading.

Job 28:2

Iron is taken out of the earth and brass is molten out of the stone.

The opening verses of Job 28 are sometimes referred to as the mining passage. Verse two may imply a mining activity but the Hebrew does not actually say so. Therefore a false translation is made in modern translations to accommodate the idea. In v.4 "flood" (nah-ghal) is made to read "shaft" and the rest of the verse is mangled beyond recognition. But how do they arrive at "shaft"? GESENIUS says "probably a mine" without any evidence. We note that WILKINSON wrote, "Gesenius, a notorious liberal, specialised in hanging the theological terminology of the Bible into that of liberals". (Our Bible Vindicated; p.104)

The NEB suggests in a footnote that the Hebrew is obscure, but the AV translators never thought so. The word is not uncommon in the OT and is translated consistently in relation to torrents of running water, (Ps.18:4, 74:15, etc.). So JND and a host of others perpetuate the error. Lest any should think there really is uncertainty in the meaning of the Hebrew word, let a company of modern orthodox Jews have the last word. In 1988, in Jerusalem, they published a bible based on the most accurate Masoretic text available (they say) in which the word nah-ghal is translated "watercourse". I have the book in front of me. It is a parallel Hebrew/English edition, known as the Jerusalem Bible. (Not the RC one by that name!).

Psalm 8: 4,5

What is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him? For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and honour.

The ESV has “....yet you have made him a little lower than the heavenly beings. A footnote then gives -or than God: Septuagint, than the angels.

In this case the Septuagint has a correct translation and the ESV has a false humanisitic translation. This is born out by the reading in Hebrews 2: 6,7 where the Greek word aggelos which can only be translated “angels”. The ESV has “angels” here with no footnote so plainly they did not need one in Psalm 8.

Psalm 16:10

For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell.

This verse is quoted by Peter in Acts 2:27 where the Greek word hades is translated "hell". Thus we see that the OT sheol is equivalent to the NT hades meaning hell. But hell is an unpopular word among the critics so it must be removed. We are assured by these critics that any changes are made for clarity or accuracy. One Bible critic, Mr Vine, would rather have the word hades put into our English NT instead of hell. So we ask him what does the word hades mean? But he confesses that he does not know. I quote from his dictionary, "It has been thought by some that the word etymologically meant the unseen (from a negative, and eido to see), but this derivation is questionable; [by whom?] a more probable derivation is from hado, signifying all-receiving". His words "more probable" means that he hadn't got a clue and his guess is no better than anyone else's.

This interpretation allows for the two-compartment hell popularized by Schofield. That is, everybody went to hell in OT times, the good to the Paradise side and the bad to the burning side. When Christ rose He took Paradise with Him. But this is mere conjecture. There is no verse that says any such thing.

That hell (sheol) was not all embracing can be seen from Ps.9:17.The wicked shall be turned into hell. If all go to hell anyway, why do the wicked need to be spoken of? Or else why does not Scripture specify "the wicked shall be turned into hell-badside"? David never expected to go DOWN into sheol (See Bible margin; grave=hell).Ps.49:14. That was for the wicked. He expected to go UP to heaven, Ps.55:15. Amos assures us that heaven is up and hell is down. Amos 9:2. That is how it has always been. That is how it still is. No saint ever went down into hell. Some suggest that Jacob thought he might end up there in hell, but no Scripture says that he ever did.

So does "Hades" clarify the reading? It is only the anglicised form of the Greek word that does not help us at all. The scholars put it in because they don't know what it means! But they do know what hell means, and that may be why they fear the word and leave it out.

The Greek word gehenna is also translated "hell" in the AV, e.g. Mt.5:29 The whole body shall be cast into hell. Comparing Scripture with Scripture we note that the body is not cast into the hades/hell. It is the soul which goes down into that hell. Gehenna relates to the Lake of Fire into which hades/hell will eventually be cast, Rev.20:14. There death and hell give up their prey, the body from the grave and the soul from hell to be reunited in the Lake of Fire at the end of time. This is the dreadful fate of those who die in unbelief. I have no difficulty over one English word being used to translate two different Greek words. The fire of hell is for ever. Just use your concordance and look up all the references and the meanings become clear. There is no need to tamper with the translation.

Psalm 58:1

Do ye indeed speak righteousness, O congregation? Do ye judge uprightly, O ye sons of men?

A commentator tells us,

It is universally agreed that the opening words of the Psalm are obscure. The word which by the AV is rendered “congregation” (482) is the word elem, and is found elsewhere only once, in the title of Psalm 56, “Jonath-elem-rechokim”. .Apart from those who argue a textual corruption it is agreed by all others that the word is elem and means “silence”. JN Darby will therefore translate, “Is righteousness indeed silent?” -What the Bible Teaches-Psalms.

The obscurity of the verse is not universally agreed of course. Men will make such assertions in order to promote their own rationalistic views and to ape the apostate scholars. Bible believers see no obscurity and accept the verse as it stands. The AV translators saw no obscurity for they made no account of it in the margin.

Darby is compelled to ignore the verb to speak which is also plainly in the Hebrew reading. Otherwise we get the gobble-de-gook version “Do ye indeed speak righteousness in silence?”

This congregation did not speak righteousness. They did not judge uprightly. These conditions repeat themselves in our day.

The preface to this commentary assures the reader,

The authors of these volumes are not scholars of the original languages and rely for guidance on the best modern views [my italics] of word meanings and similar matters. all it However all the authors share the conviction that the Bible in its entirety is the word of God. They believe it to be reliable, accurate and intended “for our learning”.

If it is the conviction of these men that the Bible in its entirety is the Word of God,(they do not call it Scripture) then it is mischief of a high order for them to question it and alter it as they repeatedly do. But in this day of double talk, when they say ”Bible” they don’t mean what I understand by the word Bible. Their bible is a nebulous thing, not confined to a single version or translation. They do not believe that the word of God in its entirety is to be found between the covers of one single Book. This is the view held and taught not only among the liberal but also by those once regarded as conservative fundamentalist brethren. By their own confession they are Modernists.

So how is "Congregation¨ to be justified as the correct interpretation of elem? It is justified by its presence in the English Bible. The believer does not call into doubt the words that he finds on the holy page of Scripture. Let our modernist friends attempt to justify their alteration. They tell us they rely on “modern views”.

They turn to H F W Gesenius (1786-1842), a noted German rationalistic theologian. His lexicon was translated into English by S P Tregelles who spent some time among the Exclusive Brethren.

Gesenius wrote of elem,

[elem] m. silence. [“It may be worth inquiry whether [elem] should not be dropped, having sprung perhaps from a careless repetition of nma¡”. This conjecture is wholly needless.]

In this Gesenius showed his contempt for the verbal inspiration of Scripture. His words are those between the speech marks. He is described by B Wilkinson as “Gesenius a notorious liberal, [who] specialised in changing the theological terminology of the Bible into that of liberals”. Our Authorized Bible Vindicated p104.

Psalm 84:3

Yea, the sparrow hath found an house, and the swallow a nest for herself, where she may lay her young, even thine altars, O LORD of hosts, my King and my God.

Mr H. Paisley, (brother of Ian who does believe the Bible to be the inspired word of God), tells us, "It seems evident that a sparrow or swallow could not build a nest in the altars, or their vicinity. The two altars, the copper altar of the burnt offering and the golden altar of incense, were things most holy unto the Lord. The reading of the text in the AV and RV would infer the possibility, but the law of the altar prohibits such an action of birds building nests in or around the altars. The passage should be read:' My soul longeth, yea even fainteth for the courts of the Lord, My heart and flesh crieth out for the Living God' (v.2). A parenthesis follows (yea the sparrow hath found a house, and the swallow a nest for herself, where she might lay her young) Even thine altars, O lord of hosts. The last clause of verse 3 is a continuation of verse 2.

Mr Modern Man knows better than the Psalmist. There is no parenthesis in any version that I know of and I looked at several. Paisley doesn't cite one. He doesn't tell us what this anti-bird law is either. Men who do not understand the Scriptures frequently seek to mutilate it to fit their own whim and fancy.

The Psalmist, probably David in exile, longed to enjoy what the sparrows and the swallows freely enjoyed. I believe my Bible. I don't need anybody to tell me what must be read into it. I accept the page of Scripture as it stands.

Ecclesiastes 3:11

He hath made every thing beautiful in his time: also he hath set the world in their heart, so that no man can find out the work that God maketh from the beginning to the end.

The NIV has “He has also set eternity in the hearts of men.” This is a misleading translation of the Hebrew word goh-lahm” (Strong’s 5769). It presents entirely the wrong meaning of verse.

The word has to do with time and not eternity. Certainly the word is frequently translated in the AV Bible as “everlasting” or “for ever” but it is in relation to time and tells of time past (Deut.32:7, Josh.24:2 etc.) as well as time future (Isa. 45:17, where we read of world without end)..

There is a time limitation in the word so that the everlasting statute of Lev. 16:34 is not applicable today. The servant for ever is servant no more (Deut.15:17). There is a time factor on the whole of Ecc.3:11; it is in his time!

It is a long time, (Isa. 42:14), so that the puny mind of man cannot take it all in. It is a temporal world, from the beginning of time to its end in which men cannot find out the work of God. The last clause of the verse spells this out this long time to us - from the beginning to the end.

Proud men do not like to be told that there are earthly things set in their heart that they cannot find out so they perversely alter the meaning of Scripture.

Eternity is not set in the heart of men, though they fear it and deny it.

Isaiah 3: 3, 4

He is despised and rejected of men, a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not....yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted...

According to the Revised English Bible this reads, “He was despised, shunned by all, pain-racked and afflicted by disease...while we thought of him as smitten by God, struck down by disease and misery.”

This is one of the most highly blasphemous perversions of Scripture I have come across. The REB is teaching that Christ was riddled with disease and men though he deserved it. But they came to realise he was struck down with disease for their sakes. One must have a diseased mind to put this construction on this passage.

When we learn that the REB was planned by representatives of Baptist Union, Methodist Church, Society of Friends, Roman Catholic Church, Salvation Army, United Reformed Church , Bible Society, and a few other similar organizations, we are not surprised at the outcome.

The use of the word grief in Jer. 6: 7, and Jer. 10: 19 demonstrate the reasonableness of the AV translation in Isaiah 3:3,4. All the words are in plain non-archaic English, easy to be understood.

Isaiah 7:14

Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

A comment on this verse, found on the internet site Truth and Tidings, for October 2001, reveals the inevitable fruit of textual criticism. Readers are told that Isa.7:14 doesn’t mean what it plainly says, that a virgin shall conceive and bear a son. The word “virgin” is clearly understood by all to mean a pure young woman who has never known a man. But the Truth and Tidings implication is that almah is a vague word with more than one meaning. In which case the Hebrew Bible lacks a word equating to our English “virgin”. almah occurs at Gen. 24:43, Ex.2:8, Ps.68:25, Prov.30:19, S.of S.1:3, 6:8, and Isa.7:14 only. If Isaiah meant only that a young woman capable of bearing children conceived, all would reply, “some sign!”.

The Angel of the Lord told Joseph unequivocally, that the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 was to be fulfilled in the birth of Christ. Joseph clearly believed this. Isaiah knew that the prophecy did not relate to himself. He never called his son Immanuel. He did relate verse 15 to the subject of verse 14, without allowing the possibility of double fulfillment. We have no problem with this either. Luke tells us that the child grew and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom. (2:40). Luke speaks of the Lord in His humanity; His growth as a child.

Truth and Tidings tells us the sign in Isaiah was for Ahaz. It was not.Isaiah tells us it was for the whole House of David. (v.11) . To Ahaz he says, Ask THEE a sign. Ahaz refused to hear it. The sign to Ahaz would be the birth of Mahershalalhashbaz, born of Isaiah’s wife, and not a virgin. So Isaiah turned and addressed the House of David; The Lord Himself shall give YOU a sign. After this, in v.16, it is back to Thou (Singular) with a prophecy in relation to Ahaz.

It is very regrettable that the crystal clear prophecy of the virgin birth of Christ in Isaiah is now denied by those who regard themselves as the fount of all truth.

Isaiah 9:3

Thou hast multiplied the nation, and not increased the joy: they joy before thee according to the joy in harvest, and as men rejoice when they divide the spoil.

Regarding Isaiah 9:3, the Masoretic Text has the word "not" (the Heb. letters lamed aleph.) Therefore the AV is accurately translated here„oas everywhere. The exquisite care taken by the Masoretes in copying manuscripts is well known and there are no grounds whatsoever for altering the Hebrew Text. The AV translators were obviously puzzled by this. (They had no difficulty translating it) so they put in a marginal note: "or to Him." but they kept "not" in the reading. The AV stands entirely alone in this. No commentator attempts to explain the AV reading. All without exception ignore it.

The verse tells us that joy was not increased. It doesn't say that joy was not given, only that in this prophecy the existing joy was not increased. We must simply read the verse as it stands.

This is a significant case where the critics have altered the original Scripture in the modern versions on the ground that it doesn’t make sense to them. There are no alternative Hebrew readings that I know of.

Isaiah 14: 12, 15

How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! ... Yet thou shalt be brought down to hell.

Floyd Nolen Jones wrote the following concerning these verses. I quote them here to give an answer to the false notion given by D Oliver in Truth and Tidings, August 2006, that Lucifer may be referred to as “the Old Testament’s Morning Star”.

(We see how the blind acceptance of modern versions demonstrated repeatedly in the above mentioned magazine leads to blasphemous doctrines.)

However, the New International Version pens:

How you have fallen from heaven O morning star, son of the dawn ... but you are brought down to the grave.

Indeed, the New American Standard and all the modern versions read almost exactly like the NIV (except the NKJV). Yet historically Isaiah 14 has been cited throughout the Church as the singular biography and identification of Lucifer

[G.A. Riplinger, New Age Bible Versions, (Munroe Falls, OH: A.V. Publications, 1993), pp. 40-55]. In verse twelve of the King James, Lucifer is in heaven; in verse fifteen Satan is in hell, and the continuing context establishes that Lucifer and Satan are one and the same being. The new versions have removed the name "Lucifer" thereby eliminating the only reference to his true identity in the entire Bible – yet the change in these versions is not the result of translation from the Hebrew language.

The Hebrew here is helel, ben shachar which translates "Lucifer, son of the morning" (as is found in all the old English translations written before 1611 when the KJB was published). The NIV, NASB et al. read as though the

Hebrew was kokab shachar, ben shachar or "morning star, son of the dawn" (or "son of the morning"). But not only is the Hebrew word for star -kokab nowhere to be found in the text, "morning" appears only once as given in the KJB . [the ESV also reads, “how are you fallen from heaven, O Day Star, son of Dawn!” – Ed.]

– not twice as the modern versions indicate. Moreover, the word kokab is translated as "star" dozens of other times by the translators of these new "bibles". Their editors also know that kokab boqer is "morning star" for it appears in plural form in Job 38:7 (i.e., morning stars). Had the Lord intended "morning star" in Isaiah 14, He could have eliminated any confusion by repeating kokab boqer there. God's selection of helel (lleyh, Hebrew for Lucifer) is unique as it appears nowhere else in the Old Testament.

Moreover, Revelation 22:16 (also 2:28 and II Pet.1:19) declares unequivocally that Jesus Christ is the "morning star" or "day star" (II Pet. 1:19, cp. Luk. 1:78; Mal. 4:2), meaning the sun – not the planet Venus.

I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.

Thus it must be understood that the identification of Lucifer as being the morning star does not find its roots in the Hebrew O.T., but from classical mythology and witchcraft where he is connected with the planet Venus (the morning "star").

The wording in the modern versions reads such that it appears the fall recorded in Isaiah 14 is speaking of Jesus rather than Lucifer the Devil! The rendering of "morning star" in place of "Lucifer" in this passage must be seen by the Church as nothing less than the ultimate blasphemy. The NASV compounds its role as malefactor by placing II Peter 1:19 in the reference next to Isaiah 14 thereby solidifying the impression that the passage refers to Christ Jesus rather than Satan. But Lucifer (helel, lleyh) does not mean "morning star". It is Latin (from lux or lucis = light, plus fero = to bring) meaning "bright one", "light bearer" or "light bringer". Due to the brightness of the planet Venus, from ancient times the word "Lucifer" (helel, lleyh) has been associated in secular and/or pagan works with that heavenly body.

Among the modern versions, only the King James (and NKJV) gives proof that Lucifer is Satan. Without its testimony this central vital truth would soon be lost. This fact alone sets the King James Bible apart from and far above all modern would-be rivals. Truly, it is an achievement sui generis. Indeed, the older English versions (the 1560 Geneva etc.) also read "Lucifer".

The clarion has been faithfully and clearly sounded (I Cor.14:8). If the reader is not greatly alarmed by the above, it is pointless for him to continue reading. However, if concern has been aroused as to how this deception has been foisted not only upon the Christian Church, but on the general public as well – read on. The story lies before you.”

Which Version is the Bible; Floyd Nolen Jones; p.vii, 17th Ed. 1999

Isaiah 17: 12

Woe to the multitude of many people, which make a noise like the roaring of the seas;

The NIV does away with woe so we read, “Oh, the raging of many nations,

They rage like the raging of the sea.” The NRSV has “Ah [which makes it an expression of admiration], the thunder of many peoples!¨ . JND doesn’t like woe either so he has “Ha! A tumult of many peoples!” Ha can be an expression of joy.

We do know that the AV translates the Hebrew word hoh-¦ee as “ah” in seven places. This is why it is vital to consider the context.

But now we find much worse; the AV itself is tampered with. A friend tells me she has acquired a Cambridge AV Bible with this woe” printed in capitals. My facsimile 1611AD does not have capitals and I cannot find the word capitalised in any other edition. It is the practice for the first word in each chapter to be capitalised and as a new paragraph begins at 17: 12 this may be the reason for capitals here. However, new paragraphs are indicated by the symbol and capitals are not needed.

Isaiah 38: 8

Behold, I will bring again the shadow of the degrees, which is gone down in the sun dial of Ahaz, ten degrees backward. So the sun returned ten degrees, by which degrees it was gone down.

Most modern versions and parodies of Scripture read similar to the GNB ─ “On the stairway built by King Ahaz, the LORD will make the shadow go back ten steps. And the shadow moved back ten steps.”

The Hebrew word translated ‘degrees’ is ma’alah (Str.4609). I could find no manuscript variants. Modern versions accept this word but translate it ‘steps’. The word ‘dial’ is also ma’alah which word is found translated ‘steps’ in Ex.20: 26, Neither shalt thou go up by steps unto mine altar.

The modern translators therefore jump to the conclusion that Ahaz’s sun dial was a succession of steps on which the length of the shadow would indicate the hour. Actually a post knocked into flat ground would have served the same purpose. The length of the shadow would be measured more effectively.

But the modern men are making gobble-de-gook of the Scripture. These mighty steps would need to be swung through 180o at midday, otherwise there would be no shadow at all for the rest of the day.

Persisting in this nonsense some tell us that David’s songs of degrees (Psalms 120-134) were composed on these steps. David lived more than 200 years before Ahaz.

The AV translators were well aware that ma’alah has a variety of meanings. Here is a third; 1 Chron. 17: 17, a man of high degree.

The Egyptians had invented a sun dial long before the days of Ahaz. Perhaps his sun dial was based on theirs. It was ‘T’ shaped with a raised cross bar causing a shadow to fall on the stem. This instrument lay flat on the ground and was rotated through 180o at midday. (See sundial: Enc. Brit.)

Textual critics are proven deceivers. Beware.

Isaiah 53: 5

….and with his stripes we are healed.

Isaiah 52: 15

So shall he sprinkle many nations; the kings shall shut their mouths at him.

“...so now he will startle many nations”. CJB (Complete Jewish Bible).

One must not think that being Jewish, these translators better understand the language.

Rather, they have accepted the variant in Kittel’s footnote to this verse, in his Biblia Hebraica;( my ed. 1909.)

The variant is thaumasontai from the Greek Septuagint and means “startle”. There are no other variants. This is an interpretation and is not a translation of the Hebrew word nazah meaning “sprinkle”.

nazah is consistently translated sprinkle in the OT. (24 times) and can apply to blood, water, , and oil, in a good or bad sense. Note the first reference; Ex. 29: 21 and thou shalt take of the blood that is upon the altar, and of the anointing oil, and sprinkle it upon Aaron...

The Septuagint is an extremely defective document. There is no evidence it existed before the first century AD or that currently there is a definitive version of it.

The alteration in this verse is designed to deny the Messiahship of Christ.

Some of us remember how Hitler startled the nations, causing them to wonder with great astonishment.

Wilson tells us concerning this word,

The uniform use of the word [nazah] in the sense of sprinkling with blood, in order to purify, establishes a most important application of this passage to the virtue of the Messiah’s atonement. Old Testament Word Studies

William Macdonald, in his Believer’s Bible Commentary gives,

But when He comes again men will be startled (NKJV marg.)

In many places Macdonald takes the line of rationalism. His commentary is best avoided. The Bible Knowledge Commentary by John Walwoord is much more reliable. It is available online to those using E-sword.

(1 Peter 2: 24

….by whose stripes ye were healed.)

Peter makes it plain that the prophetic words of Isaiah 53: 5 have been fulfilled in the death of Christ upon the cross. The Hebrew word chabburah translated “stripes” in Isaiah is singular as also is the Greek word molopes translated “stripes” in 1 Peter. Some critics make a great play of this, suggesting that the AV translators were confused. But they had Wycliffe who in 1 Peter reads “bi whos wane wounde ye bin heelid”. They were also fluent in Hebrew and Greek. Wycliffe had only Jerome’s Latin Vulgate to go by but not even the Rheims has the singular. Tyndale, Cranmer and the Geneva all translate in the plural, as do most modern versions

including the NASB and Darby.

Dave Hunt, in his November ’04 Newletter makes a great play of this alleged error in the KJV pointing out that the MacArthur Study Bible shows the word to be singular and a number of eminent scholars wrote in to confirm this. We’ll just say here that Tyndale knew it as well.

Our modern men think their theology is upset by the plural form. They argue that we cannot be healed by the stripes that men laid on the Saviour; rather, our God laid one stripe upon Him which has brought our healing. But men nailed Him to the cross and the Scriptures speak much of the cross. Men put Him to death but He said, concerning His life, no man taketh it from me. I lay it

down of my self. Of course our salvation lies in what Christ did for us. It could not depend on the actions of wicked men. All that He endured was according to God’s predeterminate will and counsel.

Our translators knew what they were doing and were also masters of the English language. By His stripe we are healed simply would not make sense.

Isaiah 45: 7

I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil. I the LORD do all these things.

Some of our brethren take exception at the thought of God creating evil. They reject the plain statement of Scripture because they do not understand it.

Evil, in this verse, is the English translation of rag. It is used first in Gen. 2: 9, And out of the ground made the LORD to grow....the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Its fruit was forbidden, but God created it!

Jacob, concerning Joseph, thought an evil beast hath devoured him. Gen. 37: 33. He would not have doubted that God had created this evil beast.

Jonah 3: 10 reads God repented of the evil that he had said that he would do unto them.

Micah 1: 12 tells us, evil came down from the LORD unto the gate of Jerusalem.

No doubt there are many more verses that the critic regards as offensive. They do not understand the Scriptures and they do not understand the nature of God.

God cannot sin and rag does not imply the presence of sin. It may simply be adversity, or rottenness ─ the evil figs of Jer. 24: 8 were not sinful we presume. Evil is everything which is not good, beneficial, wholesome. God in His permissive will allows a lot of this.

If our brethren would only read a little more of the Bible and not wrench verses out of context they would save themselves a lot of embarrassment.

Jeremiah 23:30

Therefore, behold, I am against the prophets, saith the Lord, that steal my words every one from his neighbour.

The neighbour in this context was the ordinary man who should have been taught the word of God by the prophet. The neighbours therefore were the common people, but they were happy with what their prophets and priests were giving them. So, in Jer.8:8,9 we read, the pen of the scribes in vain. The wise men are ashamed, they are dismayed and taken: lo, they have rejected the word of the Lord.

The result of this infidelity brought disaster to Israel. National life was destroyed and the people went into captivity.

History repeats itself„-because men will not learn„- and again there are religious leaders, self-styled bible teachers who fawn after the prophet-scholars of our day. The result must be the same„-a professing, but apostate, Christendom, disowned of the God of Heaven.

The critics and modern versionists steal God’s words. They tell the people that words, phrases, sentences, whole verses and passages ought not to be in the Bible. Their own words they will insert. Their efforts do not produce increased godliness and faith. What we see among those who ¡§prefer¡¨ the NKJV or the NIV is ungodliness, worldliness, and immorality. The judgment of God is against such.

What will the NIV make of Jeremiah’s words? Therefore, declares the Lord, “I am against the prophets who steal from one another words supposedly from me”.

The word supposedly does not occur in Scripture. The NIV is not giving what they like to call Dynamic Equivalence.The meaning itself is changed to what the NIV thinks Jeremiah meant to say. What they were stealing, says the NIV, may not have come from God at all, there is some doubt in it. So they reject the preceding verse, Is not my word like as a fire? Saith the Lord; and like a hammer that breaketh the rock in pieces?

The NIV verse regards this as no more than infighting among the prophet fraternity, stealing from one another. Perhaps the NIV thinks it is no more than plagiarism . The prophets were doing what the NIV does, i.e. giving false words to the people and passing it off as the word of God.

Jeremiah 31: 22

How long wilt thou go about, O thou backsliding daughter? for the Lord hath created a new thing in the earth, A woman shall compass a man.

Modern Versions deny the teaching of the Virgin Birth.

Compass (saw-bab’) commonly means to surround, as the men of Sodom, compassed the house round. Gen. 19: 4

A woman in pregnancy compasses the child. The changes in modern versions listed below (which is far from being an exhaustive list) show a conscious wilful attack on the virgin birth of Christ, because no man is involved in this creatorial act. It is a new creation on the Lord’s part.

“.... A transformed woman will embrace the transforming God.” The Message (MSG)

“....A woman will protect a man” God’s Word. Is this a new thing?? It is certainly not God’s word.

“....A woman turned into a man” REB

“....A woman with the strengths of a man.” Complete Jewish Bible (CJB)

The NIV has “A woman will surround a man” and then uses a footnote to deny the Virgin Birth teaching in the verse; “or, will go about seeking, or, will protect”

William MacDonald in his Believer’s Bible Commentary, which is based on the NKJV denies there is any reference here to the virgin birth. He claims “The woman here is Israel and the man is Jehovah... the prediction is that the virgin of Israel will cease to go ‘hither and thither after idols’ and will seek and cleave to Immanuel.”

Those who read the prophecy of Jeremiah may note that about 40 times the nation is urged to return. RETURN, RETURN, RETURN. But this is to be a NEW creation so how can they return to a relationship that never before existed? Had Israel NEVER enjoyed a close relationship with God?

If God can reverse the backslidings of a nation through a creatorial act why has He not already done so? What love is this?

He goes on to quote Kelly (but does not identify which Kelly. J N D Kelly, William Kelly?) “a devout scholar of undoubted orthodoxy, explains why a popular interpretation is not valid...compassing a man has no reference whatever to the birth of a child.” Q E D??

So what about “In Jer.31: 22, ’A woman shall compass a man’ is a prophecy of the birth of the Messiah from a virgin”—Wilson’s Old Testament word Studies. Kregel.

The man here is gheh-ber’meaning a warrior or valiant man. The word is not used in relation to deity. But when we come to Isaiah 9: 6 which is an unequivocal reference to the virgin birth of Christ, we find another word used from the same root as gheber-ber’. It is unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given.... The mighty( ghib-bore’) God.

Now we shall add our QED.

Remember dear fellow believer, almost all commentaries are written by rationalists. J N Darby also denies the virgin

Daniel 3:25

He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.

Nebuchadnezar knew what he was saying. He said (v28), Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, who hath sent his angel, and delivered his servants that trusted in him.

Nebuchadnezer was not some untutored clod. He knew the history of the Jewish people and he knew the Angel of the Lord, referred to in v28, to be the Son of God. He did not say in v25, ¡¥the fourth is the Son of God¡¦ but he was saying that the fourth person in that fiery furnace had the appearance of One who could not possibly be any other than the Son of God. Believers today have no doubt either that it was the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, who stood with the three in their hour of need. We believe the manifestation of the Son of God was for Nebuchadnezzar¡¦s benefit as well as for the three.

J N Darby had different views. He translated the phrase as, the appearance of the fourth is like a son of God. He gives a footnote to this verse, which reads. “Or “of the gods” Elah, Aramaic, in the plural, corresponding to the Hebrew Elohim.” ( in which case Genesis 1:1 might well be in the beginning some gods (elohim) created the heavens and the earth). Darby grievously aligned himself with the Russellite (JW) perversion which reads the appearance of the fourth one is resembling a son of the gods.

The NIV reads, the fourth looks like a son of the gods, together with many other modern versions. This is not what Nebuchadnezer said and it is not what Scripture says.

Daniel used the Chaldee word Elah 48 times, sometimes to indicate other gods but mostly with reference to his God. The meaning in v25 is made crystal clear by the context.

If the critics argue about the inclusion of the definite article„o the Son of God„o when one is not present in the original, they align themselves with the Russellites who in John 1:1 have the Word was a god which is a key statement in the JW heresy.

Amos 3: 3

Can two walk together except they be agreed?

Some modern versions add “...to meet with each other” or similar words. The first mention of “together”, yakh’-ad is in Gen. 13: 6, the land was not able to bear them that they might dwell together. The meaning is being with each other, and not moving towards each other as modern versions teach. This latter produces a false idea that distance (from God, or my brother) does not matter as long as the intention is to meet up on some common ground. It is based on Strong’s definition that the word carries an implication to meet.

Rather, if there is to be continuing unity there has to be agreement on the course. If there is disagreement on fundamentals there can be no united testimony.

In Amos the two are God and Israel. Israel should have been in communion with her God but she was in disagreement because of her iniquities and so the walk together was disrupted.

Zech.5:6

This is their resemblance through all the earth.

The reliability of the OT Scriptures has never been seriously challenged until recent times. The exquisite care of the Jews in transmitting the text from generation to generation was too well manifested for any attempt to falsify it in any part. The English translation in the AV Bible is acknowledged to be a 100% accurate translation of that text. It is a serious error therefore to think that the Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures commonly known as the Septuagint is superior. Even liberal scholars are ready to admit that the Septuagint is a very defective translation. Yet we hear brethren quoting from it against the AV.

We have an example in this verse. "Resemblance" is a translation of the Hebrew word gah-yin which is more commonly translated "eyes", or "in the sight of". Orthodox Jews accept the AV translation. A modern Jewish bible puts it "their appearance". When the Septuagint changes it to "this is their iniquity" it has first of all to change the Hebrew word to gah-vohn without any authority. There is no ms. in existence with that reading. Darby notes this alternative but relegates it to a footnote without changing the text. The NIV has "iniquity" in the text, and “appearance" in a footnote. It is the NRSV-Catholic Edition which reads "this is their iniquity in all the land" and that is exactly how it was quoted by one of our leading Bible-teachers recently.

If public men think that their intellect is superior to the Scripture, so that they may change words to suit their own interpretations, then the great apostasy is well and truly upon us. Read the passage as we have it in the AV and ask what is being resembled by what? Then note a fourfold "this is" and the explanation is right before us. This is an ephah; this is a woman that sitteth in the midst of the ephah; this is their resemblance; this is wickedness. It is wickedness personified.

AV Verses Vindicated Pt.2 Matthew to Acts

AV Verses Vindicated (Collated from Waymarks 1-52)

NEW TESTAMENT.

Matthew to Acts

Mathew 4:1

Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil.

Some of our commentators tell us that the reading should be "carried up" and not led up. But in Lk.22:66 we have the same Greek word anago where we read, And as soon as it was day, the elders of the people and the chief priests and the scribes came together, and led him [Christ] into their council. We do not believe the Lord was carried in. He was always in full control of every situation whether in the Jews council or in the wilderness. In Matthew 4 we read of His willing response to the guiding of the Holy Spirit in fulfilling the will of the Father.

In Mk.1:12, immediately the Spirit driveth him into the wilderness. The Greek verb ekballo here is more often translated "cast out", but in Jn.2:15 it is translated as in Mk.1:12, He drove them all out of the temple. Mark expresses the Lord's willing determination and the power in all his movements in pleasing the Father.

We fear that sometimes Bible words are changed by preachers in order to give the impression that they have an inner knowledge not available to rank and file believers.

Matthew 6:13

For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.

Critics will not accept this verse as genuine.

These words which were added to our Lord’s Prayer make it contradictory. It would be useless to pray for God’s kingdom to come if the divine rule is already fully operative in the earth. At the time these uninspired words were added to the Lord’s Prayer, it was the general belief that Christ’s kingdom was ruling through the church-state systems of Europe, hence this effort to make the Bible support the claim.

bibletoday.com

Fred. Nolan, as long ago as 1815, proved in An Inquiry into the Integrity of the Received Text that this verse had existed from the beginning. As usual, it is but a handful of depraved Romish manuscripts that omit it. Tatian quoted it in his Diatessaron (150-160 AD).

Burgon wrote concerning the removal of this text, and others, from the text of Scripture,

May we be permitted to say without offence, that in our humble judgment, if the Church of England, at the Revisers’ bidding were to adopt this and thousands of other depravations of the sacred page,... she would deserve to be pointed at with scorn by the rest of Christendom?

It was never the “general belief” of the saints of God that Christ’s kingdom was ruling through the church-state systems. It is the kingdom of GOD that is referred to. David spoke of it in 1 Chron.29:11, Thine, O LORD, is the greatness, and the power, and the glory, and the victory, and the majesty: for all that is in the heaven and in the earth is thine; thine is the kingdom, O LORD, and thou art exalted as head above all. The sovereignty of the eternal God extends through all ages and the time is fast approaching when Christ will rule on earth for a thousand years. The words of the thief on the cross were, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom. (Lk.23:42). He wasn’t thinking of heaven either, as the Lord made plain in His answer.

Matthew 7: 14

Strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.

“Because narrow is the gate and difficult is the way which leads to life, and there are few who find it”. (NKJV)

The way is narrow which leads to life, meaning that it is restricted. There is no room for pride and love of sin along this way. But the way is NOT difficult for one must come as a little child. The false translation of the NKJV paves the way for the false gospel of self-effort in order to be saved. It is not “do” but “done”.

Matthew 8: 2

There came a leper and worshipped him

Only deity is entitled to worship and here, and in ten other places recorded in the N.T., Jesus accepted worship. Darby did not like the idea of the Lord being worshipped so he changed it to “do homage”. The NIV has “kneeled before” in five of the eleven places.

The suggestion that it doesn’t really matter because the Lord’s deity is upheld in the other six references shows a v3ery careless approach to the Scriptures. Bible believers care about the omission of the truth even if it should be only in one verse.

Matthew 9: 13

But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.

“to repentance” is missing from modern versions. This explains why repentance is missing from modern preaching. The Lord said, except ye repent ye shall all likewise perish. The removal of repentance ensures that multitudes of false Christians will go to the lake of fire.

The words are well attested in the Greek manuscripts and were removed in a few spurious manuscripts.

We note that J N Darby chopped these Spirit given words from his own translation. This will account for the unwillingness to preach repentance by those who follow Darby today.

Matthew 9:15

Can the children of the bridechamber mourn, as long as the bridegroom is with them?

Prof. David Gooding writes "When the Lord Jesus used the term 'children of the bridechamber', it was the every day expression for 'guests of the bridegroom'. But the fact is in English we do not call wedding guests 'children of the bridechamber', any more than we call potatoes 'earth-apples'. Why not then, use the straight forward, natural English expression which everybody immediately understands, instead of a literal translation of an oriental expression which in English sounds peculiar and puzzles many readers? At least, that is what many modern translations do in such cases, and why they differ from the AV". The Word; issue 36; p.23.

Gooding does not believe in verbal inspiration. 'Bridechamber' and 'bridegroom' are both mentioned in this verse and they are not the same. If guests of the bridegroom were intended then we would have to read, 'how can the guests of the bridegroom mourn as long as HE is with them?', as in the NIV. But that is a false reading. We must read Scripture carefully. Thus Prof. Edersheim tells us that "all the invited guests bore the general name of ' children of the bridechamber'. The Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah; Vol.1 p.355. the bride's guests were there as well. By this we see that modern versions fail to supply an accurate translation.

But the whole significance of the verse is denied in modern versions. We are not reading of an ordinary wedding feast. The context is the disciple's relationship with the Lord in something which is entirely new. They were not merely guests at this wedding feast, to go home when it was all over¾they were children. They would remain children of the bridechamber even after the bridegroom had been taken from them - and crucified.

Friends enjoy closer relationships than those who are but guests, but these first disciples were more than just friends of the bridegroom. The designation 'friend of the bridegroom'. belongs uniquely to John the Baptist, (Jn.3:29). The bride is made upon all believers from Pentecost to the Rapture. John was outside of that, being sent before Him. So these who were first described as children of the bridechamber, enjoying an intimate relationship with the bridegroom, are also part of that bride which is the Church. They were all together on the day of Pentecost, the birth day of the Church, when the Holy Spirit was poured out upon them.

Matthew 10: 5,8

These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying,....cleanse the lepers, raise the dead....

Dean ,Burgon who so skilfully dernolished the Westcott& Hort theories upon which the RV was based, was nevertheless not 100% in favour of the Received Text. But then neither were the AV translators.There are a number of places where AV readings are not found in the RT, Conversely, Burgon regretted that the phrase "Raise the dead" which

IS in the RT, found its way into the AV.

Burgon wrote, "when our Lord first sent forth His twelve Apostles, it was certainly no part of His ministerial commission to them to 'raise the dead'. This is easily demonstrable. Yet is the spurious clause retained by our Revisionists: because it is found in those corrupt witnesses- א B C D, and the Latin copies. But he might also have

pointed out that the words were kept in the RT because of the stronq ancient testimony to them|.

It may be that Burgon's real objection was that the comand to raise the dead did not seem to fit in with the Lord’s Commission" This, he says, is easily demonstrable. Only he didn’t demonstrate it . That the

Apostles did have the miraculous powers given to them in Matt. l0, and that they used them after the Lord’s ascension is demonstrated in the book of Acts.

Particularly we note Acts 9:36-45. where we read of the death of Dorcas. Peter raised her to life again- He obviously knew he had this power for it would have been very damaging to the furtherance of the gospel if Peter had told her to arise and nothing had happened. It follows also that the men who went to fetch Peter knew that he had been given this power. There would have been no value in calling him to come and look at a corpse if he could do nothing about it. So we need not be surprised to read in the gospels of the occasion when the Lord conferred this power on the apostles. Paul also raised Eutychus from the dead, Acts 20: 9-12.

This is ore of the very few placcs where Burgon slipped up and allowed his judgment to be coloured by subjective reasoning. Dr. Letis has pointed this out in his book, The Eccliastical Text.

Matthew 12: 40

For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Some do not like the idea of Jonah being swallowed by a whale. They have even suggested, quite falsely, that whales have never been known in the Mediterranean Sea. They think it was a great fish. The biggest fish, the whale shark, is incapable of swallowing anything but plankton. ketos (whale) is found here only in the New Testament and scholars are unable to determine its derivation. It is better then simply to believe the Bible.

The whale is mentioned in Gen. 1:21, and God created great whales (tanniyn = land or sea monster), Job 7: 2, Am I a sea, or a whale and the same Hebrew word is found again in Ezek. 32: 2 Thou art as a whale.

We learn in Jonah 1:17 The Lord had prepared a great fish and in 2: 10 The Lord spoke unto the fish and it vomited out Jonah upon the dry ground. (dag= fish; often used collectively-Strong). No fish can swallow a man whole. The word dag is inclusive. Its first usage in Gen. 9: 2 reveals this. Three classes of creatures are mentioned; beasts of the earth, fowls of the air, and fishes of the sea. Whales therefore must fit into one of these three categories. Believers do not swallow the great lie of evolution so they know whales are categorized with the fishes of the sea.

Matthew 13:4

Some seeds fell by the wayside.

It is being taught by some that “seeds” in this verse is not the Word, but refers to persons being sown. They concede that in Luke 8:11, The seed is the word of God is an accurate translation, so making the Lord contradict Himself as do all the modern versions. They know that the word is the seed and he which received seed by the wayside (Mt.13:19) means he that was sown with the seed by the wayside or had the seed sown in him. It was sown in his heart, the verse says so. The sower never sowed him anywhere. The scholars cannot grasp these elementary truths.

Matthew 18: 11

For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost.

Modern Bible critics do not want the Son of man coming to save that which was lost. The verse is therefore rejected in most modern versions.

One version rejecting these words is the NIrV. My copy was published in 1996 with introductions by Steve Chalke..

Under the heading “Verses not found in the earliest Greek New Testaments” we find the above verse listed. How does Chalke come by this information? What and where are these “earliest New Testaments”? Reference to New Testament implies all the books of the New Testament bound together in one. To which New Testaments does he refer? He doesn’t tell us.

As it happens the verse is found in numerous papyri (these being older than any complete Greek N.T.), also it is found in the majority the majority of cursive manuscripts. It is missing form very few manuscripts. Chalke wants us to believe the verse was added by some illiterate believer very early on —and then astonishingly kept in almost without exception by every subsequent copyist.

Chalke, has stated publicly that Catholicism is just another form of Christian worship (- Cecil Andrews; “Take Heed” Ministries ;Oct.2004). Chalke in his book The Lost Message of Jesus, denies the doctrine of Penal Substitution. That is, he denies that God sent His Son to be a propitiation for our sins.(1 John 4: 10).

Chalke has been described as a “Christian TV Star”.- Belfast Telegraph; 12th Nov 1994.

Matthew 18:15

Moreover if thy brother shall trespass against thee...

It is alleged that the words “against thee” should be omitted from this verse. One reason given is that some Greek mss omit them. In fact just two mss omit them, against the majority which keep them. These two are the Sinaiticus (found in a rubbish bin in a Romish monastery by Tischendorf) and the Vaticanus, (kept in the Vatican and never fully inspected by any believer at any time in its history.) Newberry lists some of the mss supporting 'against thee' but his list is by no means complete. JND keeps the words without even a footnote. The RV keeps the words but has a footnote, as also the NIV. Not even the Doauy-Rheims omits them. We have to come to the J.W. New World Translation to find their omission.

The words are quoted by several of the so-called Fathers long before the Sin. and Vat. were invented. They are inspired words of Scripture. Their removal makes way for the Romish confessional box. Their removal allows sin to be covered up, for I can go to a sinning brother, who has sinned, not against me but against another brother, or maybe against his neighbour and certainly against his God and if I can persuade him to stop then no one else need know. We can sweep it under the carpet. We trust that is not the reason why some of our dear brethren want the words wrested from Scripture.

More about Mtt.18: 15

Despite all the evidence in favour of the received text, we read in a magazine, Truth and Tidings: May, 2005, published on the internet - …”most of the manuscripts from which our translations come either omit ‘against thee’ or note that it may not have been in the original writings.” We wonder how such a writer (David Oliver) can be so ignorant. Or is this a malicious intent to deceive?

The above comments will be published in Waymarks 42, August 2005. You may wish to make a comment.

I received by email the following reply,

Dear Brother:

Thank you for your very careful and thorough handling of the issue. If you knew our brother Oliver well, you would not accuse him of being ignorant. Likewise, to call in question his motive - "Is this a malicious intent to deceive" would be the last thing you would do. If I remember correctly, Paul does warn against judging motives (1 Cor 4).

I am not writing to defend, only to caution and to welcome helpful insights and comments without the unnecessary innuendoes and suggestions. Our brother Oliver would be the last to condone sin or to encourage the pathway you have warned against.

We welcome your thoughts and appreciate your honesty and the time spent in writing.

Warmly in Him,

Sandy

Dr Higgins appears to assure us that when Mr Oliver told his readers that most manuscripts reject “against thee” when in fact only two popish manuscripts do, he knew what he was doing! The words “against thee” are part of holy Scripture given by inspiration of God. It is a very serious matter to tamper with the word of God. Mr Oliver has compounded his error with his lie. All attacks on Scripture are malicious. They cannot be anything else. Mr Oliver’s motives have not been questioned by me. I know not whether his action springs out of pride, or the desire to appear erudite, or contempt for the AV Bible which is the word of God, or a desire to destroy the faith of many, or such.

We note that the error was not corrected in the next issue of Truth and Tidings. Let its readers remain misled!

Mr Oliver also attacked the virgin birth of Christ in an earlier issue of Truth and Tidings. This was answered in Waymarks no. 28, repeated below.

A comment on this verse, Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. (Isaiah 7: 14), found on the internet site Truth and Tidings, for October 2001, reveals the inevitable fruit of textual criticism. Readers are told that Isa.7:14 doesn’t mean what it plainly says, that a virgin shall conceive and bear a son. The word “virgin” is clearly understood by all to mean a pure young woman who has never known a man. But the Truth and Tidings implication is that the Hebrew almah is a vague word with more than one meaning. In which case the Hebrew Bible lacks a word equating to our English virgin. almah occurs at Gen. 24:43, Ex.2:8, Ps.68:25, Prov.30:19, S.of S.1:3, 6:8, and Isa.7:14 only. If Isaiah meant only that a “young woman capable of bearing children” conceived, all would reply, “some sign!”.

The Angel of the Lord told Joseph unequivocally, that the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 was to be fulfilled in the birth of Christ. Joseph clearly believed this. Isaiah knew that the prophecy did not relate to himself. He never called his son Immanuel. He did relate verse 15 to the subject of verse 14, without allowing the possibility of double fulfillment. We have no problem with this either. Luke tells us that the child grew and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom. (2:40). Luke speaks of the Lord in His humanity; His growth as a child.

Truth and Tidings tells us this sign in Isaiah was for Ahaz. It was not! Isaiah tells us it was for the whole House of David. (v.11) . To Ahaz he says “Ask THEE (singular0 a sign.” Ahaz refused to hear it. The sign to Ahaz would be the birth of Mahershalalhashbaz, born of Isaiah’s wife, and not a virgin. So Isaiah turned and addressed the House of David; The Lord Himself shall give YOU (plural) a sign. After this, in v.16, it is back to Thou (Singular) with a prophecy in relation to Ahaz.

It is very regrettable that the crystal clear prophecy of the virgin birth of Christ in Isaiah is now denied by those who regard themselves as the fount of all truth.

Matt.18: 20

For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.

There are some who make a play of the first “in”. They want to make it read “unto my name” on the grounds that the preposition eis may be translated “unto”. J N Darby appears to be the first (and only translator, that I can find ) who makes this change. The change was made in order to promote an ecclesiastical system. The system became known as Exclusive Brethrenism and is now as much a false cult as any can be.

“Unto” is an archaic word and has been replaced almost entirely by “to” (not “in”) in modern usage.. Eis is translated by many English prepositions; to, into. in, throughout, for, unto, by, at, among, against, upon, toward, on, concerning. “In” is used at least 70 times, so we may deduce there is no reason at all why it should not be “in” in Matt. 18: 20.

Matt. 19:9

And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Such is the Satan’s fury against Christ and His Word, that in this chapter nineteen of Matthew’s gospel alone, 35 changes are made by the critical text.

In verse nine the words and whosoever marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery are not found in the revised Greek NA text, and so are missing from modern versions. Yet the manuscript authority for them is extensive.

The authority for retaining this clause is found in the following mss:-

Papyri: (P25) B C* E F G H K N O U V W Y Z Delta Theta Pi Sigma Phi 078

Cursives: MAJORITY fam 1, 13

Old Latin: aur c f g2 Vulg

Syr: pesh harc pal

Cop: bo

Arm: Eth

Also extant in Omega 047 055 0211 0233?

Authorities rejecting this clause:

Papyri: Aleph C-3 D L S

Cursives: pc (i.e. a small handful)

Old Latin: a b d e ff1,2 g1 h l r1

Syriac: sin cur sa bo-ms

Thus we find overwhelming evidence in favour of this clause.

Wycliffe’s translation of Jerome’s Latin vulgate c.1380 at this verse makes interesting reading; “And I seie to 3ou, that who ever leeveth his wijf, but for fornycacion, and weddeth another, doith letcherie; and he that weddeth the forsaken wijf, doith letcherie.

Men will mutilate Scripture to serve their own ungodly purposes. The divorced partner may well be innocent but the marriage bond still holds in heaven, so she is not free to remarry.

Some are trying to get round this by saying that if the marriage is not consummated, the marriage can be annulled. But it is not consummation that makes the bond before God, but rather the formal marriage vow taken before witnesses. This binds until the death of one annuls it.

Matthew 20: 30

Then came to him the mother of Zebedee’s children, with her sons, worshiping him, and desiring a certain thing of him.

Worship is the entitlement of God alone. Matthew, writing the gospel knew this; he had already recorded the Lord’s response to Satan in ch.4, v.10’ Get thee hence Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve. The Lord Jesus Christ accepted worship while on earth. The mother of Zebedee;s children knew Him to be the Lord her God.

By this perversions of Scripture become apparent when they deny worship to Jesus Christ here in the flesh.

So, J N Darby will have her and her sons merely “doing homage” which is no more than acknowledging one of a higher status. The Rheims Version has “bowing down”; Knox has “falling on her knees” and the NIV has her “kneeling down”.

The RT has proskuneo which is the usual word for worship in the Greek NT. The Critical Text mischievously changes the Greek word to proserkomai which is first used in the TR at Mtt.4 : 3 when the tempter came to him and is never translated worship in the AV Bible.

Matthew 23:8

But be not ye called Rabbi: for one is your master, even Christ.

Exception is taken to these words by some of our teachers. They do not like Christ being Master, so they tell us, "the editors of the Greek Text amend verse 8 to read didaskolos = teacher (RV), though JND uses "instructor..." (What the Bible Teaches; Mt./Mk.p.308). What Greek Text? We presume the Westcott / Hort text is meant. These two Anglicans dabbled in Spiritism and were hostile to evangelical truth. The Greek word for "Master" occurs in the majority of mss, the alternative being found in a handful of Romish mss. They go on to tell us that as the word should be "teacher", so the words "even Christ" should be omitted because the Holy Spirit is now our Teacher and not Christ. But these words are well attested, being quoted by two of the early Fathers (so-called), NOVATIAN and GREGORY OF NYSSA. Critics should meditate upon Eph.4:20,21 where Paul reminds the Ephesian saints that they have heard and have been taught by the Christ that they probably never saw in the flesh. Those who do not hear His voice remain without eternal life. Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am. Jn.13:13.

Matthew 23:24

Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel.

This should read “strain out a gnat” say the Bible critics. One of them, W E Glenny, makes a great play over this phrase. He writes in relation to this verse,

Most believers realize that people can make mistakes in copying and printing the Bible; furthermore, they believe that only the original autographs were inspired, not the KJV, or the TR, or any other translation or edition. However, for the King James-Only advocate, such differences are more than an embarrassment; they are a contradiction of the King James-Only position. How can the KJV be inspired and yet have errors in it that should be changed? If it has been changed, which edition is the inspired edition? —One Bible Only? P.90.

The word translated strain at (diulizo) is used here only in the whole of Scripture. In the 15th century it meant “to choke over/ to gag at”. It never meant “to strive for” and doesn’t mean “to strain out”. The Pharisees would choke over things of little consequence but would swallow the more serious things without demur. F F Bruce tells us that Vine, in his dictionary, relied on the definitions of Thayer, Moulton-Milligan, and Baur—all of them unbelieving rationalists. So Vine falsely renders the word in question.

Now we see the degree to which Bible critics will go to attack God’s Book. They reveal an innate hostility to the truth. The “Mistake” is with the critic. There are no errors in the Bible, so these men must invent them.

Matthew 24: 36

But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.

Some modern versions, following a handful of Alexandrian mss, interpolate “nor the son” after not the angels of heaven. The majority of manuscripts do not have this phrase in Matthew. Neither the Son is found, correctly, in the parallel passage, Mark 13: 32

The practice of the critics is to reject what they do not understand, and Ehrman goes to great lengths trying to explain why the copyists did not include /exclude both phrases. The believer does not have to understand every word in his Bible before he judges it to be authentic. This is rationalism. The child of God believes the word and waits for the Holy Spirit to illumine his mind on what he reads.

Matthew is the gospel of the King. Mark is the gospel of the Servant. J Moorman links the phrase in Mark with John 15: 15 The servant knoweth not what his lord doeth. -Early manuscripts and the Authorized Version; BFT; p.72

Matthew 25: 46

And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.

It is evident that the AV translators did not regard the words everlasting and eternal as having the same meaning and interchangeable. The two words in the same sentence are sufficient proof of this. We do not believe that English words were used indiscriminately by the translators, as some suggest. They were well aware, of course, that they were translating one Greek word, aionios. We learn as we read our Bible with a believing mind, that aionios has two meanings which are not identical and cannot be interchanged. The Spirit of God led our translators to see this. (I am not implying that the AV was a newly inspired book).

God is eternal; without beginning and without end. We are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life (1 John 5:20). The gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. The believer, being in Christ,

receives that eternal life which is the life of Christ imparted. From the moment of conversion one’s new life begins and it is therefore everlasting life.

Underneath are the everlasting arms. God doesn’t have eternal arms, but from the time men needed them they were there.

Matthew 26:6-13

....A woman having an alabaster box of very precious ointment....

(Also see Mk.14:1-9, Lk.7:36-50, Jn.12:1-9).

There appears in all four Gospels an account of a woman pouring an ointment on the Lord. The careless reader concludes that the same event is being referred to in all four gospels. A careful comparison reveals three separate occasions when a woman approached the Lord with ointment.

The first time was during the Lord's Galilean Ministry, recorded for us by Luke. We learn from v.24 that John the Baptist was still alive so this happened quite early in the Lord's public ministry.

The second time was six days before the Passover, recorded by John. It was the day before the Lord rode into Jerusalem seated upon an ass, (12:12.) so it was at the end of the Lord's public ministry and it took place in Judea and not in Galilee.

The third time was only two days before the Passover, being the same Passover recorded by John, evident in the fact that both Matthew and Mark tell us that the disciples prepared for that supper, it being the night of His betrayal. Matthew and Mark speak of that third anointing.

In order to harmonize these accounts (and beware of men who want to "harmonize" the Scriptures) certain criteria are followed by the critics. The first is that the Bible is no different from any other literary work. That is, it does not have any divine origin. It then follows that the writers are liable to make mistakes (no such thing as verbal inspiration) and what they did write down was largely legendary, passed on from earlier sources by word of mouth. Then, the gospel writers allegedly copied from each other. They were therefore guilty of plagiarism!

So we find in Readings in St John's Gospel; by William Temple, "He comes first to His friends at Bethany. They most naturally arrange a supper for Him. They do this not in their own house, but in the house of Simon the Leper (St. Mark xiv,3, only St. Mark has a wrong note of time; his chronology of Holy Week, and consequently that of the other two synoptists, is mistaken at several points, especially the date of the crucifixion itself. St. John is all through this period both referring to the Marcan record and correcting it)."

Temple was a prominent apostate of his day (1881-1944). He was a one -time Archbishop of York and then of Canterbury. (Need we say more?). We know that godless clerics could not possibly produce any spiritual work, but what is grievous is that the same wicked lies are now commonly promoted from our own platforms. The lie is this:- Matthew and Mark say TWO days whilst John says SIX days so at least one of them has got it wrong. How frustrated God must be "trying to get the message across" and these gospel writers keep getting it muddled up. It is a satanic lie of course. If one does not believe in the verbal inspiration of Scripture then there is no way one will get into God's heaven. One simply is not a believer. How can a person be saved if he does not believe in the infallible, inerrant word of God? Some are so confused over the matter that they tell us that six days might mean two days!

This subject has nothing to do with versions either. Either you believe the Bible implicitly or not at all. You cannot pick and choose what you want to believe.

Now a little application. There is an interesting omission in Luke's account. The Lord did not say that the woman had done it for His burial as the other three writers tell us. For the Lord had not up to that time spoken to His disciples concerning His death. This was a poor sinful woman who came to the Saviour in simple faith and devotion and received forgiveness of sins.

At the end of His ministry the Lord had spoken of His impending crucifixion, burial and resurrection. The disciples could not grasp it but two women did. Mary, who was not a sinful woman like the woman of Luke 7, was a spiritual woman and that is why she brought her 1lb of spikenard and anointed His feet. she had appreciated what lay before her Lord. It was done against His burial, the Lord said so. Four days later another woman wished to be associated with His death so she anointed the Lord's head as Mary had anointed His feet.

Matthew 27: 3, 4

Then Judas, which had betrayed him, when he saw that he was condemned, repented himself, and brought again the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders, Saying, I have sinned in that I have betrayed the innocent blood.

The word metamellomai, here translated “repented” is used only five times in the New Testament and is not the usual word for repent. Some don’t like the idea of Judas repenting (though he brought forth fruit meet unto repentance) so they tell us he did no more than “regret” his betrayal. See God’s Word to the Nations now being quoted by one of our leading conservative evangelists.

If it is regret here, then it must be regret in the other four places. (Matt. 21: 29,32; 2 Cor. 7: 8; Heb. 7: 21).

Matthew 27:46

And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli,eli, lama sabachtani? that is to say, My God, My God, Why hast thou forsaken me?

(Mark 15: 34 Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachtani?)

This has been changed to ' why didst thou forsake me' by W Kelly and this has been taken up with some enthusiasm by some of our brethren. However, we find the following all in agreement with the AV:- Tyndale, JND, RSV, NIV, Doauy, and many others. So why change it? Because, we are told, it is in the aorist tense and never mind the weight of evidence against such a change. So I look it up in my Bagster's Analytical Greek Lexicon and learn that it is in '2nd Pers.sing. Aorist Indic. Active.' and Mr Newberry tells us the aorist is a 'point in the expanse of time'. So now we know. But note 2 Tim.4:10, for Demas hath forsaken me. The same Greek word is used and is also in the aorist tense. It may be that the act of forsaking took place in a moment of time but the condition of being forsaken continued up to the time of Paul's writing his second letter to Timothy

We believe the Lord was still forsaken as He uttered those solemn words Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani. If not, then uncertainty is cast on the efficacy of His atoning work, for Christ died for our sins and the words why didst thou forsake me? suggest that the forsaking had ended before He died. The AV translation is the only acceptable one.

The words from the cross are reported slightly differently in Mark 15:34:- Eloi, eloi, lama sabachthani? Which is, being interpreted, My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me? This we are told, is in the vernacular whereas the words in Matthew are given in Hebrew.

Four hundred years before the birth of Christ the prevailing condition was this: Jews....had married wives of Ashdod, of Ammon, and of Moab: And their children spake half in the speech of Ashdod, and could not speak in the Jews language, but according to the language of each people. Neh.13:23,24.

Not all the Jews had done this. There was always a faithful remnant. But many of those who had returned after the captivity were of mixed marriage. Many didn't return anyway. So there were very few left who could speak in the Jew's language. But for a Jew not to speak in Hebrew was a disgrace before God. The offspring of the unfaithful spoke half in the language of Ashdod. Ashdod was a Philistine town where was the house of Dagon the fish-god.

We digress for a moment. Christendom today worships the fish-god, which is why his symbol of a fish is seen on the back of every other car. Its speech is "half-Ashdod". That is, when they pray it is no longer the language of the Bible, "Thou art", etc. but "you are", etc as is found in all the Philistinish bible versions.

Malachi was a contemporary of Nehemiah. Malachi was the last of the OT prophets. There were no more until John the Baptist 400 years later. So conditions did not improve over those 400 years. God had nothing to say. No Scripture was given; no prophet was raised up.

However, during these four centuries between the OT and the NT era the Apocrypha was produced and, it is alleged, the Septuagint. This latter was supposedly the OT in Greek. Seeing that God was silent during this period in regard to His written word, and also in regard to His spoken word via the prophet, the Apocrypha and the Septuagint clearly did not come from God. They must both have come from the pit.

God broke His 400 years silence when John cried out Repent ye: for the kingdom of God is at hand....prepare ye the way of the Lord. Mt.3:2,3. And there was a faithful remnant waiting for Him. Do you think they were not of pure speech? Aramaic may well have been the common language in Palestine at the time as some allege, but Hebrew was still the speech of those who loved the Lord.

There are ten references to the Hebrew language in the NT and none to the Aramaic language, (not even in Acts 2:8-11). Paul spoke in the Hebrew tongue, Acts21:40. The risen Lord spoke to Paul in the Hebrew tongue, Acts 26:14. The words on the cross were in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin. There were no Aramaic words written on the cross. Golgotha is a Hebrew name, John19:17. This latter being refuted in the Oxford Companion to the Bible, p.272. I quote,-

Several verses in the New Testament appear at first sight [my italics] to refer to the Hebrew language and the Greek word translated as "Hebrew" (hebraisti) does indeed refer to that language in Rev.9:11 and 10:16. But it is also used of the Aramaic words Gabbatha and Golgotha in John 19:13,17. and it probably [my italics] denotes a Semitic (as distinct from Greek) language spoken by the Jews, including both Hebrew and Aramaic, rather than referring to Hebrew in distinction from Aramaic. Similarly the Aramaic expression Akeldama is said in Acts 1:19 to be 'in their language', that is in the language of the people of Jerusalem."

But it doesn't say "in their language" at Acts 1:19. The correct reading is that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood. And it was not the people of Jerusalem but the disciples who were speaking. See how these "scholars" are out to deceive you? The disciples knew what was the proper tongue of those dwelling in Jerusalem. Their own language was Hebrew. If my Bible says Gabbatha and Golgotha are Hebrew names, then I believe at first, second and thousandth sight. The man who wrote the article quoted above is J A Emerton, Regius Professor of Hebrew, and fellow, St John's College, University of Cambridge, England. I remain unimpressed. I still would rather believe my Bible.

Emerton suggests there probably was a Semitic language, not Greek, not pure Hebrew either, not even Aramaic, spoken by the Jews at this time. Only, the professor doesn't know what it was! But it certainly was not Aramaic, though there may have been a few Aramaic words in use in those times. If the world's leading authority on the subject is uncertain as to the precise language spoken by the Jews in first century Palestine, why challenge the Biblical testimony to the use of Hebrew?

Scripture is twisted in modern versions to cater for the view that other than pure Hebrew was spoken in NT times. Some have called this hybrid Hebrew/Aramaic "the vernacular".

There is a coming day when all will speak a pure language. That will be one language spoken by all nations. Zeph.3:9. It will be pure, not a mixture of languages. It will not therefore be English, although this is plainly God's world language for these last days. I am quite sure it will not be Aramaic, Chaldee, Syriac, or Yiddish. It will be the language of God's ancient people, Israel, which is Hebrew. All will speak this language for a thousand years during the soon coming earthly reign of Christ.

The mistranslation of Mtt.27: 45, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? to read “...why didst thou forsake me?” has led to a more serious error. It is being taught that in the hours of darkness on the cross Christ paid the penalty of our sins.

So we have stated at a conference “In those hours of darkness Christ paid the price of our sins, and paid it all”. (Easter conference, Basingstoke, 2004). In which case Christ did not die for our sins; the penalty had been meted out while He yet lived. This false teaching now gaining ground among the Brethren destroys the foundation of our faith. It is based upon the perversion of Scripture made popular by Darby, Tregelles, and Vine

We are not told what took place during the hours of darkness. God hid from the eyes of the world the agonies of the suffering Saviour during those three hours. We understand therefore that God does not wish us to know what transpired then between Father and Son. We can but believe it was that He who knew no sin should be made sin. He bore our sins in His own body on the tree, and God’s wrath against sin fell upon Him then. He came under God’s judgment for our sin, as He became our sin-bearer. So He made the awful cry, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me. And then He died. In His death He paid the price of our redemption. Six times we read in the New Testament that Christ died. He died for the ungodly; He died for us; He died for all.

We are reminded also that without shedding of blood is no remission (Heb. 9: 22). This verse is seldom quoted accurately. We have heard it said that God guided the hand that threw the spear that pierced the Saviour’s side, somit was the Roman spear drew forth the atoning blood.

God’s redeeming work did not depend on the actions of an ungodly Roman soldier. The Lord was already dead and His work completed when His side was pierced. Neither was it the cross that caused His death, because He had power to lay down His own life. Some have suggested that the Lord died of a broken heart.

The act of killing a man is, in the Old Testament, described as the shedding of blood,

Whoso sheddeth man’s blood, by man shall his blood be shed. (Gen. 9: 6). It was not necessary that the victim’s blood should flow from his body. The expression is used frequently in the Scriptures

Matthew 28: 19

Baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.

This should read “ ‘into the name’, i.e. into the covenant relationship and communion with the triune God” says P. Schaff in his introduction to The Revision of the English Version of the New Testament; .Harpur & Brothers; 1873.

Well of course, the preposition is eis which is commonly translated “into”. but he doesn’t let his readers know that 20 to 30 other English words are used to translate eis including “in”. Should we read “He came and dwelt into (eis) a city called Nazareth”?

Schaff’s change is governed by his theology. He believed water could produce a living relationship with God. Many still follow this pernicious error.

Mark 1:2

As it is written in the prophets.

This verse is followed by two quotations, one from Malachi, and the other from Isaiah. Textual critics tell us that the original reading was "as it is written in Isaiah", and that "someone, who recognized that the citation was a collation from two prophets, simply 'corrected' the text". The original writer was Mark. Thus modern scholars regard Mark as stupid, ignorant of OT Scripture, and not Spirit-led. They also show themselves to be apostate, not believing in the verbal inspiration of Scripture, or else they believe that the Holy Spirit directed Mark to write lies, if indeed they believe that Mark wrote Mark 's Gospel in the first place. The modern versions all carry the lie, from JND's New Translation; the RV and onwards. Notice also how JND (with most modern versions) omits "without a cause" from Mat.5:22, thereby charging the Lord with sin. See Mk.3:5

Mark 1:12 (see Mtt.4:1)

Mark 6:20

For Herod feared John, knowing that he was a just man and an holy, and observed him: and when he heard him, he did many things, and heard him gladly.

This is a much mutilated verse in the modern versions. The NIV reads "Because Herod feared John and protected him, knowing him to be a righteous and holy man. When Herod heard John, he was greatly puzzled, yet he liked to listen to him".

The AV Translators knew what the simplest Bible reader is able to grasp, that Herod certainly did not protect John but allowed the scheming and vile Herodias to have him beheaded. Of course, the Translators also knew that the word for "observed" may be translated as "protected" or "kept him (safe)" but as it plainly cannot mean that in this context, they relegated that translation to the margin. The meaning is brought out in Luke 2:19, where the same Greek word is used, Mary kept all these things, and pondered them in her heart. That is what Herod did with John. What a pity our critics didn't notice this verse. Scripture is its own interpreter. The NIV tells us that Mary treasured up all these things. As the critics complain about inconsistencies so-called in the AV translation perhaps they might have been consistent themselves and have Herod treasuring up John. But they cannot bear the thought of Herod actually understanding what John was saying to him. That is because no modern critic understands the truths of Scripture and they assume that therefore no other of their ilk could understand it either. So they have Herod puzzled instead of doing many things. This time the alteration is not a matter of translation but of a different Greek text. The critics have changed the original Greek word. Only a few ancient mss. support the modern reading and the vast majority of mss. support the AV (as always!). So what are the "many things" that Herod did? If you cannot tell us, say the critics, that proves the AV is wrong. Everything has to be explained away to these dark-minded rationalists. The Scripture doesn't tell us what these many things were that Herod did and that is enough for any Bible believer. But what that man did was as a result of hearing John's preaching, which was essentially a message of repentance. The wretched man presumably started trying to put his life right but he had left it too late. One other thing, you do not listen gladly to a man you cannot understand. That alone shows us the nonsense of modern translations.

James White is one of those who mutilate Scripture, as he writes in his book, The King James only Controversy, concerning Mark 6:20. "The Greek term simply does not mean 'observe' but instead means 'to protect'". We have shown that to be false, simply by looking in a concordance. The title of his book is misleading. He teaches that there is a cult that will not read, use , or recognize any bible apart from the AV. Then he proceeds to knock down his straw man. I have never met any such people, for those who know that the AV is the word of God for English speaking believers know perfectly well that the same Scriptures have been accurately translated into all the major languages of the world. And the "controversy" is with those who deny that God could possibly preserve his word for all generations.

Therefore Mr, White has to corrupt Ps.12:6,7. He says, Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever should really be "O Lord, you will keep us safe and protect us from such people for ever." What people does Mr White wish to be protected from? They can only be the godly and faithful of v.1. He gives no reasons at all for the change, only that Ps.12 doesn't mention the "King James Version of the Bible", and, "nowhere does this passage tell us how God will preserve His words". So therefore He can't, according to Mr White. Any believer knows how God has preserved His words. The unbeliever thinks he can meddle with Scripture as he will. This whole book is an attack, not merely on the AV, but on the integrity of Holy Spirit given Scripture.

How has Scripture been preserved? By the faithful copying of faithful men, a work overseen by the Holy Spirit of God.

Mark 9: 42

And whosoever shall offend one of these little ones that believe in me, it is better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and he were cast into the sea.

Darby puts “in me” in square brackets, indicating his objection to these words and casting doubt on their genuineness. They have indeed been bracketed in the Critical Text and are now missing from some modern versions, notably the NASV.

The manuscript evidence in favour of “in me” is massive. Their removal is therefore malicious. To some it matters not what is believed as long as one does not believe in Christ.

What confounds the critic is that not even the Codex Vaticanus omits “in me” while its twin pillar of the critical Text has thrown out these words.

Mark 10: 21

…. And come, take up the cross, and follow me.

The NIV reads “….then come, follow me.” There is no need to take up the cross. The Nestle-Aland Greek Text removes it as it is not found in the Greek Mss Aleph B C Delta Theta Psi 0274 and a handful of cursives. There is strong ms evidence for its inclusion.

The cross remains an offence and they are the liberal neo-evangelicals who object to discipleship and thus promote the modern versions, which will remove the cross.

Mark 10: 24

Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God.

The NIV reads: “Children, how hard it is to enter the kingdom of God”.

Worse than this, the CEV has “So Jesus told them again, ‘It’s terribly hard to get into God’s kingdom.”

Sinking lower, the Message [form hell?] has “Jesus kept on: ‘you can’t imagine how difficult.’

The implication is that possession of wealth is a sufficient obstacle to entrance into the kingdom of heaven. But the Lord taught that trust in riches was the hindrance. Ye cannot serve God and Mammon.

These modern versions suggest that self effort and works are required in order to gain salvation. Thus repentance toward God and faith in the shed blood of Christ are denied.

Friendship with the world is enmity with God.

What is in the world? Religion for one thing. Beware of this world’s religions Some of our brethren are all pally with Rome. They go into its schools and “share” the gospel with them. So their mouths are shut as far as truth is concerned. They dare not tell the students of the once and for all sacrifice for sin by Christ on the cross. They dare not denounce any of the wicked blasphemous doctrines of popery. They tell us it is not their business to pass judgments, only to preach the gospel. What gospel is this that denies Christ? What they really want is the praise of men.

The modern gospel states “all you have to do to be saved is to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ”. The chief rulers, we read in John 12, believed on Him. But they were not saved as the passage reveals (v42,43). The praise of men was all\ important to them. The Lord warned that which is highly esteemed among men is abominatio0n in the sight of God (Luke 16: 15). Anything whatsoever it is, however apparently moral and legitimate, having the approval of this world, is loathsome to our God.

So the “gospel preacher” returns from his visit to the school and reports how well he was received by its staff and pupils. Note 1 Thess. 2: 6, Nor of men sought we glory, neither of you.

Mark 10:29 30

And Jesus answered and said, Verily I say unto you, There is no man that hath left house, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my sake, and the gospel's, but he shall receive an hundredfold…

"Or wife", the critics tell us, was never in the original. They were added to the Greek text by a later copyist. They are quite dogmatic about it. There is no room for alternative views. "Or wife" has so little manuscript support, they insist, that it is not even mentioned in the extensive footnotes of the UBS's definitive Greek New Testament, Fourth Revised Edition (1994). Fourth edition? What about the first three editions then? Have they only now decided to ignore the words? What about the fifth edition, will they pop back in again? Or maybe in the sixth? There is no end to their Darwinian fantasy.

Were the AV translators inconsistent when they put in these words, forgetting what they had put in 1 Corinthians 9:4? Have we not power to lead about a sister, a wife, as well as other apostles? Did they forget that Peter had apparently not left his wife? Mt.8:14. So when he said, we have left all, Peter certainly never had it in his mind that he had left his wife to follow the Lord.

Should they not have paid heed to the fact that some foolish copyist had slipped in "or wife" because of Peter's words? We can't think why any one would wish to add words that were not in the original unless it should be some person who could see that by becoming a missionary one could escape a nagging wife as well as escaping from all other domestic responsibilities.

But we have great difficulty in treating the AV translators as ignoramuses. They were not. They understood what the Lord meant by leaving. By wresting "or wife" from Holy Writ, these modern mutilators of Scripture show that they do not grasp the spiritual significance of the Lord's words. The Lord never taught that by following Him one could forsake his responsibilities to home, wife and family.

We believe the Lord certainly did say "or wife". The evidence is there. The words are present in the majority of mss. They are also present in Luke 18:29, though a few mss change the order of the words.

So what did the Lord mean? Firstly the Lord was not giving a commandment; “thou shalt leave….” He said, "There is no man that hath left….” Thus the reasons for the action are left open. Peter had proclaimed that he had left all to follow the Lord. But the Lord is no man's debtor. There is reward to such. There is no sacrifice so great that the Lord cannot reward for it both now and in eternity.

Mark 15:34 (see Mat.27:46)

Mark 16:16

but he that believeth not shall be damned.

We can understand why apostate critics gnash at the Scriptures and tear out whole passages when they read words such as these. Some tell us that vv.9-20 of Mark 16 should be omitted from Scripture. But the evidence for their inclusion is overwhelming. Even the AV critic, J N Darby, wrote, "I do not enter on the question of the authenticity of verses 9-20 here. I read them as Scripture. Burgon has pretty well demolished the authorities [he meant the perverted mss] against them". However, he did not like the word "damned" so he changed it to "condemned", keeping in line with most modern versions. When we demur at this change we are told "don't you appreciate that the AV translates katakrino as "condemned" in every other instance but one?". "Yes", we reply, "we also have a concordance. But have YE not read he that believeth not is condemned already? Jn.3:18". But that should read "judged already", say the critics. That change also is seen as false because the judgment of unbelievers is reserved until that great day of Judgment at the Great White Throne (Rev.20:13). God does not judge twice for the same offence, as the modern versionists would have it.

God's order is this; all are condemned from birth by unbelief, for none was ever born a believer, and all are to be righteously judged for unbelief AND FOR EVERY ACT OF SIN at that final assize, unless refuge is sought at the Cross. The unbeliever, refusing Christ, will be damned eternally at that coming day. Men do not like the word damned because they know what it means, and that is why Satan has placed the word on the tongue of unbelievers as a daily invective in order to take the sting out of it. For the same reason he has introduced "hell" as an oath on the lips of the ungodly. So our coy bible teachers will "prefer" hades to hell.

To be damned is to be eternally ruined yet never annihilated in the everlasting flames of the Lake of Fire. And if they are figurative flames as some of our unbelieving critics tell us, then whatever must the reality be like?

Luke 2: 7

And she brought forth her firstborn son, and wrapped him in swaddling clothes, and laid him in a manger; because there was no room for them in the inn (kataluma).

There is no reason to reject the traditional understanding of this passage. There are no problems with the text (i.e. underlying Greek text) or the translation. But some are teaching that the Lord was born in an open field thereby negating the prophecy of Micah 5: 2, But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting. This prophecy relates to the birth of Christ, indicating that the birth would take place within Bethlehem.

We do not believe there were open fields within Bethlehem’s bounds. The critics deny that kataluma could have anything to do with a stable because the word is translated “Guestchamber” in Mk.14: 14 and Luke 22: 11.

Those who make a play of the Greek word kataluma show their distrust of the English Bible where we read the word “inn”. Inn is a satisfactory translation.

Inns in New Testament times were places for the traveller to rest. Like modern inns they usually had parking places for the traveller’s vehicle; then it would be a stable at the base of the inn where the vehicle (an ass) might be parked overnight. It would need refuelling and a separate charge was usually made to the traveller for provender (hay) provided. Thus a manger was provided. (See Life in New Testament Times; A C Bouquet.)

We would hardly expect to find a manger in an open field. Would not the sheep just eat the grass? Why would they need a manger?

Luke 2: 14

Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, goodwill toward men.

B Osborne, in the neo-evangelical magazine Precious Seed (Vol. 60, No.3, p.2), writes;

‘Peace on earth, goodwill to all men’. That was the message of the angels to the shepherds at Bethlehem. But the coming of Jesus did not bring peace on earth and wars have raged throughout history since then. And ‘goodwill to all men’? What of the industrial strife, disputes, family discords, church divisions?

We do not know where Osborne found this quaint reading. It is certainly not AV, neither did I manage to locate it in the 30 or so versions that I checked. He goes on to quote the NIV and several other parodies of Scripture that happen to agree with the NIV. He seems unaware that these have all trotted out from the same Westcott and Hort stable. These tell us it is “Peace on earth among men on whom His favour rests.” This can mean only one thing ─ Christ came only for the favoured few. What caused some to be among the favoured few? Osborne tells us they are those who “receive His life”. So Christ died only for those He knew would later “receive his life”!

We note that God’s goodwill is removed by the modern versions and replaced by the goodwill of men. Robertson shows that they are the usual Alexandrian mss that make the alteration ─

Among men in whom he is well pleased (en anthrōpois eudokias). The Textus Receptus (Authorized Version also has eudokia, but the genitive eudokias is undoubtedly correct, supported by the oldest and best uncials. (Aleph, A B D W). C has a lacuna here.” – Robertson’s word Pictures.

We believe the TR to be correct, supported as it is by the overwhelming majority of manuscripts. Those who deny it fail to grasp the message of the angels. There will be complete peace on earth in the ultimate fulfilment of the angelic pronouncement.

Of course there is peace on earth now. It is available individually through faith in Christ to a whole human race alienated by wicked works. This alteration by the critics is therefore a doctrinal change. It denies the doctrine of salvation, denies the millennial reign of Christ, and supports Reformed Theology.

Luke 2:22

And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord;

Modern versions read "their purification" because, they tell us, that is what the Greek says. It matters not what Lev.12 says concerning the woman alone being required to make purification. They care nothing that Joseph is therefore regarded as the father of the child, and that all the family was unclean and needing purification. They are not concerned that Scripture is made to contradict itself and that they show themselves to be unbelievers. Had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me. (Jn.5:46). To say that there is no Greek text for the singular reading is false because the TBS published one, and Scrivener, who was on the RV committee, published his in1881. I have my copies in front of me.

Luke 2: 33, 48

And Joseph and his mother marveled at those things which were spoken of him. (v.33)

And when they saw him, they were amazed: and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us? Behold, thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing. (v.48)

It is important to notice first that verse 33 is Luke’s commentary, written under the inspiration of God. Verse 48 is a report of Mary’s words, spoken at a time of deep stress, also given by inspiration of God.

Ehrman writes concerning these verses

Joseph is called Jesus' father twice in Luke's birth narrative (2:33, 48). In both instances scribes have modified the text to eliminate what must have appeared incongruous with the firmly entrenched notion that although Joseph was Mary's betrothed, he was not the father of Jesus. Thus, Luke 2:33 states that Jesus' "father and mother began to marvel" at the things being said about him. The majority of Greek manuscripts, however, along with a number of Old Latin, Syriac, and Coptic witnesses, have changed the text to read "Joseph and his mother began to marvel." The change makes perfect sense, given the orthodox view that Joseph was in fact not Jesus' father. There can be little doubt that in this case the majority text represents a corruption rather than the original reading: a wide range of early and superior manuscripts consistently give the reading that is also more difficult. The wide attestation of the variant reading and the confluence of ancient versions in its support, however, do show that the text had been changed relatively early in the history of its transmission, at least in the third century and more likely in the second—precisely during the time of the adoptionist controversies.

The doctrine of the virgin birth is to Ehrman no more than a firmly entrenched notion. He regards it as the view that had become “popular” by the second or third century. Therefore scribes altered the earlier manuscripts which spoke of the “father and mother” of the Lord, to accommodate the prevailing view. Ehrman’s views are based on the doctrine that earliest is best. The older a manuscript, the more faithful it is. He acknowledges that the majority of witnesses carry the words we find in the received text. He fails to point out Tatian, one of the early fathers, also quotes the “received” text! But all of this he writes off as a “corruption rather than the original text”.

Many sound scholars have shown why the few apparently early texts are false. The early church rejected them. They were discarded early on only to be rediscovered around the 19th century. The true manuscripts were repeatedly copied as they became worn out and so quite obviously only later copies remain available.

It is worth noting that the child Jesus corrected his mother’s slip by replying How is it that ye sought me? Wist ye not that I must be about my Father’s business? (v.49) His Father is the Father in Heaven and no other. If not then there was no Christ and no Saviour. He would not have been able to confess I am the truth. Christianity collapses and we would be forced to conclude that God also is a figment of our imagination and maybe we ourselves do not actually exist.

Luke 2:40, 52

And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him.

And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man.

These verses appear much the same in all the versions that I looked at, including the pernicious JW bible. None of them changed the word "wisdom". One is astounded therefore to read in Foundations; Issue No.42; Spring 1999, published by the British Evangelical Council, the following statement: "It is clear that Christ did not call on his divine knowledge to inform his human mind. So, for example, he grew in knowledge [my italics], Luke 2:40,52."

So the Scripture is flagrantly mutilated in order to promote a blasphemy, that the Lord was not omniscient. Partial omniscience is a nonsense as is temporary omniscience. Omniscience is an attribute of deity and if ALL knowledge was not at all times held in that perfect holy human mind then His deity is defective. So would be His human personality. It is folly to speak of the ignorance associated with His human nature, while He remained omniscient in His divine nature. Christ proclaimed neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son. Mat.11:27. This must be the supreme knowledge. It must mean also that what is known to the Father is known by the Son. We are also told of Jesus, knowing all things, Jn.18:4.

Unbelievers and rationalists will seize upon Mark 13:32 to prove the limitations of Christ. But of that day and that hour, knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.

Unless we think (in our ignorance) that there are contradictions in Scripture, then we must look for another explanation. It is that in His role as Son of Man, it was not given to Him of the Father to reveal such knowledge. He said to His disciples, It is not for you to know the times and the seasons. Acts 1:7.

What of His growth in wisdom? Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered. Heb.5:8. It was a learning through human experience, by which the Lord grew in wisdom.

Luke 2:49

And he said unto them, How is it that ye sought me? wist ye not that I must be about my Father’s business?

The RSV changes this to, “Did you not know I must be in my Father’s house?” The Greek word for house, oikos, is not found here, as it is in John 2:16, where we read, make not my Father’s house an house of merchandise. Thus the emphasis in Luke is not on the house, but on the affairs of the Father. The Lord’s words indicate His deity. He is the Son who has come from the Father to conduct His affairs on earth.

When the Lord said In my Father’s house there are many mansions, (John 14: 1), He was clearly referring to heaven and not to the earthly temple. This temple was desecrated and Judaism was godless. Neither was He informing Mary and Joseph, at the age of twelve, that He ought to be in heaven. The words in my Father’s business satisfactorily translate en tois tou patros mou.

The RSV and other modern versions making this change rob Christ of His deity.

Luke 9: 31

Who appeared in glory, and spoke of his decease which he should accomplish at Jerusalem.

The RSV replaces decease with departure. This is unnecessary as the word decease originally included the sense of departure. This is another word, which has been redefined to mean death only—and by implication, extinction.

The AV translators might have left the word in an anglicised form—exodus, but they didn’t. The Lord was speaking of his death at Jerusalem. The verse tells us so. But believers know that Christ rose again and will reign in glory in His kingdom.

Peter used the same word concerning himself (2 Peter 1: 15).

Luke 16:22,23

The rich man also died, and was buried; And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments,

The average man in the street knows what is meant by hell. He knows it is a place beyond the grave for the godless and the profane and that is why it is an expletive commonly upon his lips. Satan has done his best to take the sting out of it.

Religionists and modern versionists have helped to this end. We find an early amendment in the 1879 edition of Wycliffe’s New Testament. Wycliffe wrote ‘ and the riche man was deed also, and was biried in helle. And he reseide hise i3en, whanne he was in turmentis’, but in the glossary at the end of the book we find this interpretation given:

helle, s, grave, Lk.xvi.23.

It will require a fantastic faith to believe that this rich man’s rotting corpse was placed in the (physical) grave and then all of a sudden it opened its eyes, being in torments, and cried out ‘ I am tormented in this flame’! Hell is not the grave. The rich man’s body was buried in a grave, but his soul was buried in hell.

Some have taught that hell (Greek hades, Hebrew sheol) was the place to which all departed spirits went until Christ came. So says J N Darby,

‘Hades’ like ‘Sheol’ ….is a very vague expression used in general to designate the temporary state of departed spirits, the unseen or invisible world of spirits, upon which, till the coming of Christ, darkness and obscurity rested, as may be seen in the Old Testament. It is applied to Christ, who went into paradise, and to the rich man in Luke 16, who found himself in torment. New Translation; fn to Mt.11:23.

Darby therefore would not translate hades but left the word in its anglicized form. Likewise the RV.

Psalm 9:17 tells us, The wicked shall be turned into hell, and all the nations that forget God. This verse is sufficient to assure us that believers do not and never did get put into hell, otherwise the verse is meaningless. David anticipated heaven, for he wrote But God shall redeem my soul from the power of the grave [sheol], for he shall receive me. Ps.49:15. Jacob thought he might go down into sheol at death (Gen.37:35), but this doesn’t mean that he did. The teaching that Christ descended into hell at His death is heretical.

‘Grave’ in the O T translates five different Hebrew words, the commonest for the physical grave being keh’-ver,and for hell it is sheol. The context usually reveals whether ‘grave’ stands for the burying place of the body, or the place where the soul is buried. The grave in the N T is always the burying place of the body.

Gehenna is translated hell in the N T but is not synonymous with hades as the words of the Lord show. Mt.5:29 reads, the whole body should be cast into hell, and Mt.10:28 reads fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell. The body is placed in an earthly grave while the soul is consigned to hell (hades). Thus Gehenna is a picture of the Lake of Fire, Rev.20:14 into which, in that awful coming day, death (the body) and hell (the soul) shall be cast.

Luke 23:15

No, nor yet Herod: for I sent you to him; and, lo, nothing worthy of death is done unto him.

'D.G.' writes in a Christian magazine, 'Note these last three words, 'done unto Him'. They are a mistaken translation. the correct rendering of the Greek would be 'done by Him'. Greek grammar puts the matter beyond doubt;.....All modern translations (including .N.Darby's) agree that the AV's translation is mistaken here. How its translators came to make what is such an elementary mistake in Greek grammar we shall never know.'

There were eight scholars responsible for the AV translation of Luke's gospel. This is what A McCure tells us of them in his book, Translators Revived :-

HENRY SAVILE: Tutor in Greek and Maths to Elizabeth I. He became famous for his mathematical learning. Later made Warden of Merton College.

JOHN HARMER: King's professor of Greek; Headmaster of Winchester School for 9 years; Warden of his college for 17 years.

JOHN AGLIONBY: Fellow of Queen's College, Oxford. An excellent linguist.

LEONARD HUTTON: Known as an excellent Grecian, well versed in the learned languages.

GEORGE ABBOT: Entered Balliol College, Oxford at age of fourteen. Fellow at age of twenty one.

We are to understand that eight men, each of them of outstanding ability in the field of linguistics, and working together on the AV translation all made the same 'elementary mistake'! Not one of them spotted it. Neither did the other teams of academics as they cross checked each others' work. If 'D.G.'s (David Gooding's) academic attainments are not higher than those achieved by the men of the AV, then we trust that we shall never hear of him again. We must assume that he is also as fluent in Greek and several other languages as he is in his mother tongue, because they were.

But 'D. G.' is wrong. He has misunderstood the passage and appears only to be looking for opportunity to decry the translation that God has mightily blessed since 1611.

I am not a Greek student. All I can do is look in my Wenham's and note that auto means “to him”. It is auto in every Greek ms. If some then tell us that there is an unusual grammatical construction in this verse, we point out that it was well enough known in 1611. So if we keep to the AV translation, what does it mean? Norman Crawford explains the verse precisely, '[Pilate] sent Christ to Herod and no sentence of death was pronounced by the Tetrarch.' What the Bible Teaches; Vol.7. That is, Herod did not do anything with the Lord that would require the death sentence to be passed. That was the amazing thing! So Pilate said in that case he would just chastise the Lord and let Him go (v.16).

If we accept 'D.G.'s translation, 'I sent you to Him [sic]; and lo, nothing worthy of death is done by Him', we would understand that Pilate had sent the chief priests and rulers to Herod, and amazingly, Christ did not do anything in front of Herod to warrant death. Pilate was already well aware that the Lord was not guilty of any offence. He did not need Herod to tell him that. He hoped that the evil Herod would destroy Him anyway. But Herod did not even put the Lord on trial.

And do 'all modern translations agree that the AV is wrong here'? That statement is not justified by examination. Here is what one modern version says: 'No, nor Herod neither. For I sent you to him, and behold nothing worthy of death is done to him'. The Layman's New Testament; Sheed and Ward; 1927.

Those who attack the AV often make sweeping statements without bothering to check the evidence.

Luke 23 : 33

....the place, which is called Calvary, ....

Kranion, translated Calvary in Luke is “skull” in Mtt. 27: 33 and Mark 15: 22. a place called Golgotha, that is to say, a place of a skull. Golgotha is of `Hebrew origin. Note John 19: 17, the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha. It is not a Chaldee word as lexicons will inform us. (Trust the Bible!)

Why did the AV translators use the word Calvary in Luke? The answer is simple. They used the latin word calvaria which means skull. They did not wish to use the Hebrew Golgotha to translate a Greek word for English readers.

They anglicised calvaria to give us Calvary. It is not a Roman Catholic word as some mischievously suggest.

The English language is full of latin words (together with words drawn from a multitude of other languages). No fault can be found in reading Calvary at Luke 23: 33.

John 1:12

But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God.

Also see Behold what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God. 1.John.3:1

Some are telling us that John never spoke of believers as being the sons of God. The above two verses show that he did, using two different words, uios and teknon. However, they say that the Greek word uios (son) is a title that John reserved solely for the Son of God. However, we note that the word is used in 1:42, 4:5,12,46,47,50,53, 9:19,20, 12:36, and 17:12 without reference to the Lord. The word uios may be equally translated child, Acts 13:10; children, John 4:12 etc. It is in his first two epistles that John reserves the title for the Son of God.

So we find in modern versions the phrase "sons of God" being changed to "children of God". The difference, we are told, is that as children we are introduced into the family of God, and as sons we enjoy the dignity, heirship, and the spiritual blessing of being able to use the title Father in addressing God. All of which we do not dispute. But this does not give licence to alter the word of God. The AV reading is found in the Geneva Bible and other early translations. The AV translators saw no need for any change though they carefully considered the phrase.

This is really another case of altering the Bible to fit one's theology. So I do believe that when I received Christ, and believed on His name as the Scripture instructed me, I then became one of the sons of God. That is what my Bible says. That is what has been held to for centuries, and I don't believe there is any need to change it now.

Why not also change Rom.8:14,19 to read children of God? Why do modern versions not make the change here? The same Greek words are involved. The reason is a theological interpretation is being made, rather than a formal translation.

John 1:18

No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Wycliffe, having only the Latin Vulgate for his translation in 1380, wrote, ‘no man sai euer God, no but the oon bigetun sone, that is in the bosum of the fadir, he hath teld out’. The Vulgate reads, ‘Deum nemo vidit unquam, unigentius filius, qui est in sinus patris, ipse enarravit’. Oon bigetun sone = unigentius filius = the only begotten Son.

These are all formally equivalent translations of the Greek verse as it appears in the Received Text. Tyndale’s reading is identical to the AV excepting that he has a full-stop after time, and not a semi-colon.

The weight of evidence for the RT reading is massive. In which case one might wonder why the NASV reads, ‘No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him’. J Moorman writes.

This is the classic Gnostic perversion with its doctrine of ‘intermediary gods.’ It is the trademark of corruption in the early Egyptian manuscripts which unfortunately spread to some others.¾ Early Manuscripts and the Authorized Version.

E F Hills draws our attention to the source of this error in his book Believing Bible Study,

Burgon (1896) long ago traced these corruptions of the sacred text to their source, namely Valentinus. Burgon pointed out that the first time John 1:18 is quoted by any of the ancients a reference is made to the doctrines of Valentinus. …. What could be more probable than Dean Burgon’s suggestion that Valentinus fabricated this reading by changing the only begotten Son to the only begotten God.? His motive for doing so would be his apparent desire to distinguish between the Son and the Word (Logos).

Valentinus may have been the perpetrator of the Egyptian Papyrus 75 which has this reading. This P75 was not used by Jerome as far as Jn.1:18 is concerned when he revised the Old Latin Bible in 382 AD. It is Jerome’s revision that became known as the Latin Vulgate. If Wycliffe knew of P75, he chose not to use it either. Tyndale and the AV translators knew about this alternative and rejected it. The NASV chose to use it.

There are no grounds for omitting the word “begotten”. It speaks of the intimate relationship that ever existed and continues to exist between the Eternal Father and the Eternal Son, the One ever in the bosom of the Father. Wycliffe kept ‘begotten’ and so did Westcott and Hort.

Hills points out that those who insist that begotten should always be omitted need to consider John 1:14, which they would be compelled to translate as ‘we have beheld his glory, glory as of an only from the Father’. That is nonsensical so they add the word Son without any authority whatsoever.

John 1: 28

These things were done in Bethabara beyond Jordan, where John was baptizing.

Modern versions deny that these things were done in Bethabara. They insist the place was Bethany. Metzger is attributed as saying that the reading was altered to read Bethabara “to remove difficulties which would require tedious explanation”.

The Bible believer will find ample difficulty with Bethany. It is not “beyond” Jordan, but is about twenty miles from it, being close to Jerusalem and near to the Mount of Olives. Peran, translated “beyond” here, is several times translated “other side of”. John was baptizing in the Jordan at Bethabara, ten miles south of the Sea of Galilee. It was there the Lord came to John and there the Lord met the Galileeans Andrew, Peter, and Philip. The third day found the Lord still in Galilee at the wedding in Cana. We do not believe the Lord was in the proximity of Jerusalem on the first days of His public testimony.

We find the usual depraved mss responsible for the change to Bethany; Siniaticus, Vaticanus and also the Vulgate. Origen boasted that “this obtained in almost all the copies if his time” (Smith’s Dictionary). Yet “altered” his edition of the gospels to read Bethabara.. Now where did he get that from? And why did Jerome keep Bethabara in his Onomasticon?

It is Lachmann, Tischendorf, and other modern textual critics who have seized upon the two demonstratably corrupted mss to make the change from Bethabara to Bethany.

Bethabara means House of Ford The Jordan was shallow and crossable at this point.

John 3: 13

And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of Man which is in heaven.

The NIV changes the verse to read, “No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven-the Son of Man.

The AV Bible teaches that the Lord was in two places at the same time. He was walking on earth and at the same time He was in heaven, because He is one with the Father. The NIV and other perversions rob Christ of His omnipresence which is an attribute of Deity.

John 5: 3, 4

In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water, for an angel went down at a certain season into the pool and troubled the water; whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.

The words from “waiting for” to the end of verse 4 are omitted by the Critical Text. (Aland 26/27). They are regarded as a gloss by our modern scholars. Glosses are supposed changes to the original reading, made by copyists either intentionally, or by accident. Our modern scholars believe they are able to tell whether any reading is “original” or whether it is a gloss.

Prof J Heading in his commentary on this passage wrote,

Such a gloss was written in the margin of a manuscript not containing these words, as a sort of explanation to later readers who might wonder whatever the Jews were doing and thinking. a subsequent copyist of the text would then incorporate the gloss into the text itself, and that is why it appears in the TR from which the AV is translated. (What the Bible Teaches; Vol.6; p.87.J Ritchie Ltd.)

Prof Heading did not offer this as a theory. It is published as a statement of fact. Did Prof Heading ever see such a manuscript with its marginal insert? Did he know where this manuscript might be found? Has any person ever seen this manuscript? The answers are all negative.

If these words were not to be found in the “original” how is it that four of the Early Fathers- so called (Tatian, Tertullian, Gregory of Nazianzen, and Ambrose) quoted them?

Dr Moorman points out that “The indexes of ANPF do not show any pre-400 AD Father quoting John 5: 2, 5 with the disputed portion omitted”. (Early Church Fathers and the Authorized Version.)

Only the usual handful of mss omit this passage. It is found in the vast majority of mss.

It is also found in the English translations of Wycliffe, Tyndale, Cranmer, Geneva, Rheims, and Athorized.

Verse 7 is a testimony to the integrity of the passage. The paralyzed man testified to the miraculous stirrings of the water.

Yet Heading’s exposition is,

The descent of an angel to heal the first one who steps into the moving waters is a strange concept, and quite out of keeping with the way God acts in both OT and NT, and would even appear to be a rival to the Lord Jesus in His divine capacity to heal. Faith is not unintelligent when it has to weigh up such a strange concept whose absence from the text is supported by many manuscripts. In fact, it was an intermittent natural spring whose waters had healing properties.

“In fact” we are told, as Heading unfolds his wild theory. What “fact” is this, we wonder. What scientific or archaeological discoveries have been made in order to prove that the Bible is wrong here? Heading is proven to be false also concerning the many manuscripts. It may be Heading alsobelieved in the Lourdes superstition.

Faith accepts what God has recorded in His word. We may not understand it but it is only the rationalist who will attempt to alter the word of God.

John 6:20, 8:24,28,58, 13:19, 18:5,6,8

I am he (ego eime)

The AV Bible rightly translates this as I am he in each case excepting John 8:58 where we read Before Abraham was, I am. The two Greek words may be translated either with or without the personal pronoun depending on the context. It would not make sense to place “he” in 8:58 for that would suggest that the Lord was Abraham before Abraham was. The “I am” here speaks of the deity of the Lord Jesus, a claim clearly recognized by the Jews as they took up stones to stone Him. They did not fall to the ground as those did in 18:6. In ch.18 “he” is clearly required in order to make the statement intelligible in English.

The Lord spoke the words I am he in ch.18 to fully identify Himself as Jesus of Nazareth, thereby protecting His disciples and fulfilling the Scripture (v.9)

That this had a supernatural impact on those present is evident in their falling to the ground but we do not see this as an act of worship as some do, because it did not happen on previous occasions when the Lord spoke the words. Here they quickly picked themselves up and proceeded to take the Lord prisoner.

We note the careful use of italics in the AV Bible. Words are given in italics to indicate to the reader that the word is not found in the Greek but is required in the English translation for the sake of accuracy and meaning. There are multitudes of such additions in modern versions without any indication to the reader.

Those who claim these words to be an expression of deity, and that he should be omitted from the reading will have to grant the same for the man who received his sight in John 9: 9.

He identified himself likewise with the words “I am he,” (ego eime)